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trasher [3.6K]
2 years ago
5

2.38 Baggage fees: An airline charges the following baggage fees: $25 for the first bag and $30 for the second. Suppose 54% of p

assengers have no checked luggage, 30% have only one piece of checked luggage and 16% have two pieces. We suppose a negligible portion of people check more than two bags.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Anna71 [15]2 years ago
7 0

The average baggage-related revenue per passenger is $16.30 per passenger.

<h3>Expected value</h3>

Expected value formula: x×p(x)

First step

No passenger=0×.54

No passenger=0

Second step

One checked luggage for first bag=.30×$25

One  checked luggage for first bag=$7.50

Third step

Two piece  for the first and second bag=.16×($25+$30)

Two piece  for the first and second bag=.16×$55

Two piece  for the first and second bag=$8.80

Last step

Expected value=$7.50+$8.80

Expected value=$16.30

Therefore the average baggage-related revenue per passenger is $16.30 per passenger.

Learn more about expected value here:brainly.com/question/24305645

#SPJ1

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<h2>Hello!</h2>

The answer is:

The simplified fraction is:

\frac{7}{4}

<h2>Why?</h2>

To solve this problem we must remember the following:

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\frac{a}{b}(+-)\frac{c}{d}=\frac{ad(+-)bc}{bd}

- Product of fractions, the multiplication of fraction is linear, meaning that we should multiply the numerator by the numerator and denominator by denominator, so:

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So, solving we have:

\frac{3}{2}*\frac{5}{3}-1\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3*5}{2*3} -1\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\\\\\frac{3*5}{2*3} -1\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{15}{6} -1\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\\\\\frac{15}{6} -1\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{15}{6} -(1+\frac{1}{4})+\frac{1}{2}\\\\\frac{15}{6} -(1+\frac{1}{4})+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{15}{6}-(\frac{4+1}{1*4})+\frac{1}{2}\\\\\frac{15}{6}-(\frac{4+1}{4})+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{15}{6}-\frac{5}{4}+\frac{1}{2}

\frac{15}{6}-\frac{5}{4}+\frac{1}{2}=(\frac{5}{2}-\frac{5}{4})+\frac{1}{2}\\\\(\frac{5}{2}-\frac{5}{4})+\frac{1}{2}=(\frac{(4*5)-(2*5)}{8})+\frac{1}{2}\\\\(\frac{(4*5)-(2*5)}{8})+\frac{1}{2}=(\frac{20-10}{8})+\frac{1}{2}\\\\(\frac{20-10}{8})+\frac{1}{2}=(\frac{10}{8})+\frac{1}{2}\\\\(\frac{10}{8})+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{5}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\\\\\frac{5}{4}+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{(5*2)+(4*1)}{2*4}\\\\\frac{(5*2)+(4*1)}{2*4}=\frac{10+4}{8}=\frac{14}{8}\\\\\frac{14}{8}=\frac{7}{4}

Hence, the simplified fraction is:

\frac{7}{4}

Have a nice day!

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