Answer:
71/40
Step-by-step explanation:
7/5*8/8=56/40+3/8*5/5= 15/40 so 15/40+56/40=71/40
Answer:
The mean of X is 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the data in the question;
set of 10 cards consist of 5 red card and 5 blacks
cards are chosen, replaced and shuffled four times;
number of independent trials n = 4
now, since its is replaced, the probability of getting a red card in each trial will be;
p = 5/10 = 0.5
let X rep the number of red cards observed in the four trials.
the random variable follows binomial distribution where
n = 4 and p = 0.5
so
E(X) = ∑xP( X = x )
E(X) = np
we substitute
E(X) = 4 × 0.5
E(X) = 2
Therefore, The mean of X is 2
It is a number that has a variable and the variable can change to anything that you multiply by the factor it sits with. So basically it’s a number (3) that multiplies by whatever y equals to.
Please mark this as the brainliest answer thank you !
I honestly don't know if this is right but it may make sense:
x is the event of picking up a rotten orange.
Probability that x is more than or equal to 1
= 1 - p(x=0)
so use binomialpdf on calculator
where trial is 4, p = 1/12(5/60), x = 0
1 - binoomialpdf(4, 1/12, 0)
and u get 0.294