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Rudik [331]
2 years ago
10

A fundamental difference between a business impact analysis (BIA) and risk management is that risk management focuses on identif

ying threats, vulnerabilities, and attacks to determine which controls can protect information, while the BIA assumes __________.
Business
1 answer:
bekas [8.4K]2 years ago
7 0

The fundamental difference between a business impact analysis (BIA) and risk management is that risk management focuses on identifying threats, vulnerabilities, and attacks to determine which controls can protect the information, while the<u> BIA assumes security controls </u><u>have been bypassed, have failed, or have proven </u><u>ineffective, </u><u>and the attack has</u><u> succeeded.</u>

<u />

<h3>What is business impact analysis (BIA)?</h3>

A business impact analysis (BIA) refers to a scientific process to decide and compare the potential effects of an interruption to essential commercial enterprise operations as a result of a disaster, accident, or emergency.

A BIA is a crucial thing of an organization's commercial enterprise continuity plan (BCP).

<u></u>

Therefore,  BIA assumes security controls have been bypassed, have failed, or have proven ineffective, and the attack has succeeded.

learn more about business impact analysis:

brainly.com/question/16352505

#SPJ1

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The Rose Co. has earnings of $1.40 per share. The benchmark PE for the company is 15. What stock price would you consider approp
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

$21

Explanation:

The earning per share of Rose Co. is $1.40

The benchmark PE of the organization is 15

We are required to find which stock price would be most appropriate

Therefore, the stock price can be calculated as follows

Stock price= Benchmark PE×Earning per share

= $1.40×15

= $21

Hence the stock price that would be considered appropriate is $21

5 0
4 years ago
Based on his investment advisor's guidance, Christopher sold two stocks during 2020. The capital gain on the sale of Magnificent
Mamont248 [21]

Answer:

The question is incomplete since we are not told if the capital gain is a short or long term gain. So I will answer the question in both possible scenarios.

Short term capital gains:

They are taxed as ordinary income, so the net gain = $35,000 - $7,000 = $28,000

Net gain after taxes = $28,000 x (1 - 53.31%) = $13,073.20

Long term capital gains:

They are taxed at a much lower rate that ranges from 0 to 20%. In this case, Christopher is probably taxed at 20%.

Net gain after taxes = $28,000 x (1 - 20%) = $22,400

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Under an operating lease: (Select all that apply.)Check All That ApplyThe lessee reports amortization expense and interest expen
Alja [10]

Answer:

  • The lessee reports a single amount of lease expense, which is equal to interest expense plus amortization expense, in its income statement.
  • The lessee reports lease expense on a straight-line basis and the lessor reports lease revenue on a straight-line basis over the lease term.

Explanation:

An operating lease is basically renting an asset from a lessor where the lessee will pay a certain amount every period for the use of the asset.

This rent payment is equal to the interest expense plus amortization expense and will be reported in the income statement of the lessee as an expense.

This amount will also be reported on a straight-line basis for the duration of the lease term which means that even if rent increases, it will still have to be reported by the same amount over the lease period because the lease increase should have been taken into account already.

The lessor also reports lease revenue on a straight-line basis over the lease term.

3 0
4 years ago
What is an insurance premium?
Scilla [17]

Answer:

Premium is an amount paid periodically to the insurer by the insured for covering his risk. Description: In an insurance contract, the risk is transferred from the insured to the insurer. For taking this risk, the insurer charges an amount called the premium.

Explanation:

a

5 0
3 years ago
You are thinking about buying a new car and will borrow $20,000 for this purchase at a 5 percent fixed rate for exactly one year
natita [175]

Answer:

You will pay back the lender exactly <u>$21,000</u>, which will represent <u>$20,600</u> of purchasing power.

Explanation:

you will pay back the lender exactly $21,000, which will represent $20,600 of purchasing power.

$20,000 for this purchase at a 5 percent fixed rate

=$20,000*5/100

=$20,000*0.05 = $1,000

=$20,000 + $1,000 = $21,000

Inflation will be 2 percent this year

=$20,000*2/100

=$20,000*0.02 = $400

=$20,000 + ($1,000 - $400)

=$20,000 + $600 = $20,600

3 0
3 years ago
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