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erik [133]
2 years ago
14

Show your working please.​

Mathematics
1 answer:
iren2701 [21]2 years ago
6 0

Offer B is the best value for money because each kg cost is £0.61 and in offer 'A' each kg cost is £0.7.

<h3>What is a fraction?</h3>

Fraction number consists of two parts, one is the top of the fraction number which is called the numerator and the second is the bottom of the fraction number which is called the denominator.

We have:
2 bags for £35

2 bags means 50 kg (2×25)

Each kg cost = 35/50 = £0.7 per kg

3 bags for £92.50

3 bags means 150 kg

Each kg cost = 92.50/150 = £0.61 per kg

As we can see, offer B has a low cost per kg

Thus, offer B is the best value for money because each kg cost is £0.61 and in offer 'A' each kg cost is £0.7.

Learn more about the fraction here:

brainly.com/question/1301963

#SPJ1

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12. 4x-1 +2x-1=5x
6x-2=5x
-2=-1x
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X=2
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Problem 13:

2x-8=x+17
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Problem 14:
3x-31
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How many lines of symmetry does the letter G have
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PLEASE!!! NEED HELP ASAP!!! 50 PTS AND BRAINLIEST!!!
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1) Inverse function: f^{-1}(x)=g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}

2) f(1) = -1, g(-1) = 1

3) f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x

Step-by-step explanation:

1)

In this first method, we want to find the inverse function of f(x).

The original function is:

f(x) = 3x-4

We rewrite it as

y=3x-4

We swap the name of the variables:

x=3y-4

Adding +4 on both sides:

x+4=3y-4+4\\x+4=3y

And dividing by 3 on both sides:

y=\frac{x+4}{3}

which is identical to g(x):

g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}

2)

In this second method, we want to use the output of one function as input to the other function, and show that the output value is equal to the imput value.

We start using the function

f(x)=3x-4

We choose x=1. We find:

f(1)=3(1)-4=3-4=-1

Now we use this output value as input in the function

g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}

Substituting x=-1,

g(-1)=\frac{-1+4}{3}=\frac{3}{3}=1

So, the final output value (1) is equal to the input value (1).

3)

Here we want to verify that the two are inverse functions by showing that

f(g(x))=x

We have

f(x)=3x-4\\g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}

Substituting g(x) into f(x),

f(g(x))=3g(x)-4 = 3(\frac{x+4}{3})-4=(x+4)-4=x

Viceversa, we want to show that

g(f(x))=x

Substituting g(x) into f(x), we get

g(f(x))=\frac{f(x)+4}{3}=\frac{(3x-4)+4}{3}=\frac{3x-4+4}{3}=\frac{3x}{3}=x

So, the two functions are one the inverse of the other.

Learn more about inverse functions:

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#LearnwithBrainly

6 0
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