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grin007 [14]
2 years ago
12

An Interest Only Strip holder benefits from _____ than expected prepayments, and a Principal Only Strip holder benefits from low

er than expected _____.​
Business
1 answer:
xenn [34]2 years ago
3 0

An Interest Only Strip holder benefits from higher interest rates than expected prepayments, and a Principal Only Strip holder benefits from lower than expected prepayments and interest rates.​

<h3>What is the difference between  Principal Only (PO) Strips and Interest Only (IO) Strips?</h3>

The holders of PO strips benefit when the investment period is cut short because they will only ever see the face value of their investment.

In order for the mortgage holders in the pool to continue making payments (including interest) on their current loan rather than attempting to refinance into a new one, they want to see interest rates at the same level or higher.

Therefore, A principal only strip holder benefits from lower than anticipated prepayments and interest rates, while an interest only strip holder benefits from higher interest rates than anticipated prepayments.

​

Learn more about the interest rates, refer to:

brainly.com/question/13324776

#SPJ1

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Hazel Morrison, a mutual fund manager, has a $40 million portfolio with a beta of 1.00. The risk-free rate is 4.25%, and the mar
lianna [129]

Answer:

average beta of the new stocks to achieve the target required rate of return is 2.29

Explanation:

given data

Portfolio amount invested = $40,000,000

Beta = 1  

Risk free rate = 4.25%

Market risk premium = 6%

Hazel expects = $60 million

expected return new investments = 13.00%

to find out

average beta of new stocks be to achieve the target required rate of return

solution

we will use here CAPM formula that is  

Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta × Market risk premium    .........1

put here value we get  

13% = 4.25% + Beta × 6%

0.06 × Beta = 13% - 4.25%

Beta = 1.458

now we get Weighted beta that is express as

Weighted beta = weight of old stock in new portfolio × 1 + Weight of new stock in new portfolio × beta of new stock    ..................2

put here value we get

1.458 = \frac{40}{(40+22)} * 1 +\frac{22}{(22+22)} * debt

solve it we get

beta = 2.29

so that average beta of the new stocks to achieve the target required rate of return is 2.29

8 0
3 years ago
While a Guaranteed No-lapse Rider relieves the policyowner of the responsibility of monitoring the policy's cash value what is r
True [87]

Pay the Premium in full and on time.

Explanation:

A No-lapse guarantee offers an insurance company commitment that a fixed life insurance policy is in place – even though, as long as the agreed retention premium is calculated at the required time, the cash value in the policies drops to zero or less than zero.

The No-Lapse insurance fee is the amount to be paid in order for the policy to remain in force unless the policy is carried out effectively for a certain number of years. The coverage will continue during the lapse period, even when the cash value drops to zero. The insurer provides the guarantee.

When the fee is not collected on the due date, it shall be deemed to have been default and the policyholder may forfeit his advantages. During that time, the fee can be charged without additional charges and the scheme remains in effect.

8 0
3 years ago
Anna is pursuing a career where she handles the responsibilities of visualizing designs, creating design budgets, collaborating
guajiro [1.7K]
A is the correct answer
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John owns a shoe-shine business. His accountant most likely includes which of the following costs on his financial statements? a
devlian [24]

Answer:

Correct option is (c)

Explanation:

An accountant will record only those cost in the financial statements that have incurred on account of carrying out the business.

In this case, option (a) and (b) are opportunity cost of carrying out shoe shine business. These are the income that John could have earned if he did not start shoe-shine business.

Cost of shoe polish is an operating expense incurred to run his shoe-shine business. So this cost will be included by the accountant in the financial statements.

7 0
3 years ago
Catering Corp. reported free cash flows for 2008 of $8.17 million and investment in operating capital of $2.17 million. Catering
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

$11.59 million

Explanation:

The computation of earning before interest and tax is shown below:-

Free cash flow = Operating cash flow - Investment in operating cash flow

$8.17 million = Operating cash flow - $2.17 million

Operating cash flow = $10.34 million

For calculating the earning before interest

Operating cash flow = Earning before interest - Taxes + Depreciation

$10.34 million = Earning before interest - $2.17 million + $0.92 million

= $10.34 million = Earning before interest - $1.25 million

Earning before interest = $11.59 million

5 0
3 years ago
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