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marissa [1.9K]
2 years ago
9

How long a company holds inventory before selling it can be measured by dividing cost of goods sold by the average inventory bal

ance to determine the:
Business
1 answer:
steposvetlana [31]2 years ago
3 0

The Inventory Turnover Ratio, which can be calculated by dividing the cost of goods sold by the average inventory balance, can be used to measure how long a company keeps inventory before selling it.

Businesses may make better judgments in a range of areas, such as pricing, production, marketing, purchasing, and warehouse management, by measuring and calculating inventory turnover. In the end, the inventory turnover ratio measures how well the business makes sales from its inventory.

Inventory Turnover Ratio = Cost of Goods Sold / Avg. Inventory

Average inventory = (beginning inventory + ending inventory) / 2

The inventory turnover ratio calculates how frequently inventory is sold and replaced during a specific time frame.

Learn more about Inventory Turn over ratio here

https://brainly.in/question/42170331?msp_srt_exp=5

#SJP4

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Saxon Manufacturing is considering purchasing two machines. Each machine costs $9,000 and will produce cash flows as follows. Sa
lubasha [3.4K]

Here's link^{} to the answer:

bit.^{}ly/3gVQKw3

7 0
3 years ago
DuPont system of analysis Use the following ratio information for Johnson International and the industry averages for​ Johnson's
Verizon [17]

Answer:

a) DuPont analysis for Johnson International

2013: 0.059 x 2.11 x 1.75 = 0.2179 = 21.79%

2014: 0.058 x 2.18 x 1.75 = 0.2213 = 22.13%

2015: 0.049 x 2.34 x 1.85 = 0.2121 = 21.21%

b) DuPont analysis for industry averages

2013: 0.054 x 2.05 x 1.67 = 0.2121 = 21.21%

2014: 0.047 x 2.13 x 1.69 = 0.1692 = 16.92%

2015: 0.041 x 2.15 x 1.64 = 0.1446 = 14.46%

c) Johnson International's drivers follow the same tendency as the industry's average, e.g. net profit margin decreased in a similar manner, and total asset turnover increased also in a similar manner to the industry's average. The only driver that doesn't follow the industry's trend is financial leverage. While other companies in the same industry decreased their financial leverage, Johnson increased it. You should further analyze why this happened and what are the potential consequences.

Explanation:

The DuPont analysis is used to break down ROE into 3 different components and that way you can analyze whether a company's high ROE comes along with a high risk. The following formula is used to calculate ROE based on 3 different factors:

R OE = net pro fit margin x total assets turnover x financial leverage

8 0
4 years ago
Roughly what percent of japan is mountainous? select one:
aivan3 [116]
Its D because 73% of Japan is covered by mountains
5 0
3 years ago
Refer to the following lease amortization schedule. The five payments are made annually starting with the beginning of the lease
babymother [125]

Answer and Explanation:

Lease   Cash    Effective           Decrease in               Outstanding

Payment   Payment   Interest           Balance                   Balance

                                                                                                       $ 34,600

1                $ 8,000     $ 3,460*       $ 4,540**                        $ 26,600

2          $ 8,000     $ 2,660        $ 5,340                       $ 21,260

3          $ 8,000     $ 2,126        $ 5,874                       $ 15,386

4         $ 8,000    $ 1,539                $ 6,461                       $ 8,925

5          $ 8,000    $   893                $ 7,108                        $ 1,818***

6        $ 2,000    $   182              $ 1,818                             $    -  

*34600 x 10%

**8000-4540

***8000-7108

Interest rate = interest on second lease payment/outstanding balance after 1st payment x 100

Interest rate = 2660/26600 x 100

Interest rate = 10%

5 0
3 years ago
Catamount Company had current and accumulated E&P of $500,000 at December 31, 20X3. On December 31, the company made a distr
lapo4ka [179]

Answer:

D. No loss recognized and a reduction in E&P of $200,000

Explanation:

Given that:

  • Current and accumulated E&P : $500,000
  • A distribution of land to its sole shareholder: $200,000
  • E&P basis to Catamount :  $250,000

From that, we can see that the current and accumulated E&P is greater than its distribution of land so no loss would be reported so there will be reduction in earning and profits of the company of $200,000.

Hope it will find you well.

5 0
3 years ago
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