Because there was a pay rise, we can write the equation as x+0.04x = 24.492 and solve for x.
x+0.04x = 24.492
1.04x = 24.492
x=23.55
His original pay was £23.55
Answer:
Binomial; \mu p=87.5, \sigma p=7.542
Step-by-step explanation:
- a distribution is said be a binomial distribution iff
- The probability of success of that event( let it be p) is same for every trial
- each trial should have 2 outcome : p or (1-p) i.e, success or failure only.
- there are fixed number of trials (n)
- the trials are independent
- here, the trials are obviously independent ( because, one person's debt doesn't influence the other person's)
- the probability of success(0.35) is same for every trial
(35/100=0.35 is the required p here)
[since, the formula for
]
[since, the formula for [tex]\sigma _{p} =\sqrt{n*(p)*(1-p)}
- therefore, it is Binomial; \mu p=87.5, \sigma p=7.542
I believe the answer is 1/531441
2.00+1.50= 3.50.
3.50x8= 28.00
I'm assuming they each paid 41.00 dollars for two games,
41.00x8= 328.00
328.00+28.00= $356.00
Hope this is correct and/or it helps!
Sorry, didn't realize my mistake.
Answer:
No solution
Step-by-step explanation:

Lets consider the equation 2.
Here we multiply the LHS and RHS with (-1).

Hence,

When we add the equations we get,

As 0 doesn't equal to -1, answer is d) No solution