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evablogger [386]
3 years ago
7

Bonds with detachable stock warrants were issued by Flack Co. Immediately after issue the aggregate market value of the bonds an

d the warrants exceeds the proceeds. Is the portion of the proceeds allocated to the warrants less than their market value, and is that amount recorded as contributed capital
Business
1 answer:
lapo4ka [179]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Yes

Explanation: Bonds with detachable stock warrants could be explained as bonds which gives the holder an added offer of being able to purchase a certain asset a a specified price at a certain time. According to the scenario above, the income generated from the Issuance of the bond falls below the aggregate market value of the bond, In this case, the portion of the proceed allocated to the warrant will be less than their market value which is largely due to the impact of the shortfall in the proceed generated from Issuance of the bond. Due to the shortfall in the allocated proceed, the share of proceed applied to the warrant will be noted as outstanding in the detachable stock warrant.

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Consider the following information about an asset that is being review for impairment: Book value $ 700,000 Estimate future cash
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

The amount of the impairment loss for this asset is <u>$110,000</u>

Explanation:

A assets is impaired when the fair market value of that assets lowers than the book value of the asset.

To calculate the impairment of an assets following formula is used

Impairent = Book value of Asset -  fair market value of the asset

Placing values in the formula

Impairent = $700,000 -  $590,000

Impairent = <u>$110,000</u>

3 0
3 years ago
In the text, Curves is an example of which path? a. Looking across alternative industries b. Looking across strategic groups wit
Elena L [17]

Answer:

The correct option is D) Looking across complementary offerings

Explanation:

There are about 6 well-known paths to achieving a <em>Blue Ocean Strategy.</em>

Generally, the Blue Ocean Strategy (BOS) seeks to avoid locking horns with the competition by identifying niche areas that are critical to the attainment of a competition-free space. According to the BOS took kit, there are 6 paths to achieving a blue ocean strategy.

One of them is called looking across complementary offerings.

Another term for the Curve is Value Ramp. Value Ramp simply refers to a methodology for evaluating one's service/product offerings. It consists of a graph that plots a curve sloping upwards from left to right, showing the relationship between price and the value or perception of value being delivered by the business.

The principle offered here stated that the higher the perception of one's brand, the more one should be able to charge for their services.

Value is thought to increase as the business delivers more and more personalized services in a relationship-oriented fashion rather than generic products and services which are readily available off the shelf in most cases.

Cheers

7 0
3 years ago
Security P is a preferred stock and Security Z is a zero coupon bond that has 11 years remaining until maturity. Both securities
uranmaximum [27]

The duration of Security P based on the info given will be 11 years.

<h3>How to calculate the time?</h3>

From the information given, Security P is a preferred stock and Security Z is a zero coupon bond that has 11 years remaining until maturity.

Therefore, the duration will be:

= (1 + y)/y

= (1 + 0.1)/0.1

= 1.1/0.1

= 11 years

Learn more about security on:

brainly.com/question/25720881

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6 0
2 years ago
Sprague Company has been operating for several years, and on December 31, 207, presented the following balance sheet.
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

A. Current Ratio= 2.63

B. Acid-Test Ratio = 1.44

C. Debt to Assets Ratio 51.16%

D. Return on assets 5.81%

Explanation:

a. Calculation forn Current Ratio

First step is to Calculate the Total Current Assets

Cash 40,000

Receivables 75,000

Inventory 95,000

Total Current Assets 210,000

Now let calculate Current Ratio

Current Ratio= Current Assets / Current Liabilities

Current Ratio=210,000/80,000

Current Ratio= 2.63

b Calculation for Acid-Test Ratio

Acid-Test Ratio=(Current Assets - Inventory) / Current Liabilities

Acid-Test Ratio =(210,000-95,000)/80,000

Acid-Test Ratio =115,000/80,000

Acid-Test Ratio = 1.44

c. Calculation for Debt to Assets Ratio

First step is to calculate total Debt

Accounts payable 80,000

Mortgage payable 140,000

Total Debt 220,000

Now let calculate the Debt to Assets Ratio

Debt to Assets Ratio= Total Debt/ Total Assets

Debt to Assets Ratio=220,000/430,000

Debt to Assets Ratio= 51.16%

d. Calculation for Return on assets

Return on assets= Net Income/ Average Assets

Return on assets=25,000/430,000

Return on assets 5.81%

4 0
3 years ago
What is the difference between an "increase in demand" and an "increase in quantity demanded"?
alekssr [168]

A shift to the right of the demand curve signifies a "increase in demand," whereas movement along a particular demand curve signifies a "increase in quantity demanded." The correct response is option (B).

<h3>What is increase in demand?</h3>

A rise in demand will cause a rise in the equilibrium price and an increase in supply, all other things being equal. Reduced demand will result in a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in supply.

An rise in the quantity needed results from a decrease in the cost of the good (and vice versa). A demand curve depicts the amount desired and any market price. A change in quantity demanded is represented as a shift along a demand curve.

To know more about increase in demand, visit:

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6 0
2 years ago
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