Answer:
C) In at least one of the higher technical levels ,more minutes being provided than budgeted.
Explanation:
For such discrepancy to exist ,it means the minutes dictates the effect of the dollar.
Answer:
A. Take $1 million now.
Explanation:
A. If we take $1 million now the present value of the money is $1 million.
B. If we choose to take $1.2 million paid out over 3 years then present value will at 10% will be;
$300,000 + $300,000 / 1.2 + $300,000/ 1.44 + $300,000 / 1.728
$300,000 + $250,000 + $208,000+ $173,611 = $931,944
The present value of option B is less than present value of option A. We should select option A and take $1 million now.
Answer:
Option A. Liable, because notice to Emmett is notice to Fridley.
Explanation:
The reason is that the principle is liable for the outcome of the Emmett actions in the principle's behalf. So it is clear that Fridley is liable. The agent have to work in the best interest of its principal which means that the failure to notify the additional tax liability to Fridley was part of agent's fiduciary duty. This means that the principle can sue its agent for the consequences of not placing the sufficient care to its principle.
The Fridley is also responsible because Emmett is acting as Fridley which means the notice to Emmett is actually notice to Fridley.
Answer:
$26,000 adverse variance
Explanation:
Fixed Overheads Volume Variance = Budgeted Overheads at Actual Output - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= $1.30 x 60,000 hours - $1.30 x 80,000
= $78,000 - $104,000
= $26,000 adverse variance
The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $26,000 adverse variance
It would give me the impression that you’re not interested in the interview. If someone walked into an interview while doing the above personally I would see them as “having better things to do”
Anyways, Hope this somehow helps!