First 1/5 is equivalent to 20% so to get 20% of both of them multiply by .2. so 400×.2=80 and 90×.2=18
Answer:
a
Step-by-step explanation:
it can be solved
Answer:a
Step-by-step explanation:
The expression is equivalent to 49/8.
The probability is 0.0008.
I used a binomial probability on this one, since there are two outcomes (either pass or fail); the events are independent (the probability of one person passing does not influence the probability of another passing); and there are a fixed number of trials (in this case, 20).
For binomial probabilities, we use the formula:

With our information, we have: