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ElenaW [278]
2 years ago
6

Which best explains whether a triangle with side lengths 2 in., 5 in., and 4 in. is an acute triangle?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leviafan [203]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

 The triangle is not acute because 2² + 4² < 5².

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
g 78% of all Millennials drink Starbucks coffee at least once a week. Suppose a random sample of 50 Millennials will be selected
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=50*0.78=39  \geq 10

n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})

With the following parameters:

\mu_ p = 0.78

\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=50*0.78=39  \geq 10

n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})

With the following parameters:

\mu_ p = 0.78

\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586

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3 years ago
Continue each pattern with the next two numbers
kobusy [5.1K]
The 18th sequence is - 41
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