Answer:
1ST GRAPH
Step-by-step explanation:
1st GRAPH
Because the equation is trying to express:
<u>p is bigger or equal to -1</u>
and in graph no.1 the inequality is at -1 and everything after it could be p. As P is bigger than -1
Answer:
C.
Step-by-step explanation:
At the start, you have 10 marbles in total and 6 red marbles. The probability of the first event is 6/10.
Since you do not place the marble back in, you now have 9 marbles in total and 3 blue marbles. This probability of the second event is 3/9.
To find the probability of both events occurring, we multiply the two probabilities together. (6•3)/(10•9)=18/90=1/5
Thus, there is a 20% chance of drawing a red marble then a blue marble without placing the red marble back in the bag.
Answer:
They both have pi, radius, etc.
Step-by-step explanation:
circumference: 2piR
area: piR^2
