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muminat
2 years ago
10

Four years ago, Velvet Purses purchased a mailing machine at a cost of $152959. This equipment is currently valued at $93290 on

today's balance sheet but could actually be sold for $9633. This is the only fixed asset the firm owns. Net working capital is $58314. and long term debt is $40420. What is the book value of current assets
Business
1 answer:
horsena [70]2 years ago
3 0

The book value of current assets is $1,11,184.

<u>What is Financial Management?</u>

The technique of managing a business's finances in a way that enables it to be profitable and compliant with rules is known as financial management. That requires both a comprehensive strategy and hands-on implementation.

Financial management is fundamentally the process of creating a business plan and ensuring that it is followed by all departments.

A long-term vision may be created with the help of data that the CFO or VP of finance can supply.

The data also helps with investment decisions and provides information on how to finance those investments as well as liquidity, profitability, cash runway, and other factors.

Book value of shareholders equity = Book value of mailing machine + net working capital - Long term debt

93,290 + 58,314 - 40,420 = $1,11,184

Learn more about financial management with the help of the given link:

brainly.com/question/13184640?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ4

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explain how the substitution effect in the income effect interact with changes in price to change the quantity of demand
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

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6 0
4 years ago
At July 31, Sandhill Co. has this bank information: cash balance per bank $8,140, outstanding checks $770, deposits in transit $
horsena [70]

Answer:

The adjusted cash balance per bank at July 31 is $8,615.

Explanation:

Outstanding checks are the ones which the business has issued and recorded, but which the bank has not yet cleared. Hence, Sandhill Co. should deduct this amount from the cash balance per bank.

Deposits in transit are the deposits that are received and recorded by the business, but which the bank has not yet processed. Hence, Sandhill Co. should add this amount to its cash balance per bank.

The bank service charge is already accounted for in the cash balance per bank and requires no further treatment.

Therefore,

Initial cash balance per bank               $8,140

Less: Outstanding checks                    ($770)

Add: Deposits in transit                        $1,245

Adjusted cash balance per bank         $8,615

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
This year, Santhosh, a single taxpayer, estimates that his tax liability will be $100,000. Last year, his total tax liability wa
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

a) Is Santhosh required to increase his withholding or make estimated tax payments this year to avoid the underpayment penalty?

  • No he is not required to make any payments or increase his withholdings because this year's withholdings already represent a 133% increase with respect to last year's tax liability. If the withholdings for the current are over 100% last year's tax liability, then the taxpayer doesn't need to make any further adjustments in order to avoid underpayment penalties.

b) By how much, if any, must Santhosh increase his withholding and/or estimated tax payments for the year to avoid underpayment penalties?

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6 0
3 years ago
In your words tell us why you would be a great candidate
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3 0
3 years ago
Consider a no-load mutual fund with $200 million in assets and 10 million shares at the start of the year and with $250 million
frez [133]

Answer:

273.75%

Explanation:

Note: Capital Gain distribution would be $50.25, NOT $.25 (typing mistake)

This is no-load MF. But there are other two types of MF (Mutual Funds).

If FL MF (Front Load Mutual Fund), investors pay something upfront when investing.

In BL MF (Back Load Mutual Fund), investors pay when exiting the MF.

Here, this is no load, so calulations are easier.

Now,

NAV (Net Asset Value) is the total assets divided by number of shares.

NAV beginning of year and NAV end of year. Total expense ratio will be adjusted from NAV, end of year.

NAV, beginning = 200 million / 10 million shares = $20

NAV, end = 250 - (0.01*250) / 11 million shares = $22.5

Now,

Rate of Return of the Fund =  (NAV,end - NAV,beginning + Income Distribution + Capital Gain Distribution - Liabilities) / NAV, beginning

We have:

Rate of Return =  ($22.5 - $20 + $2 + $50.25 - $0) / $20 = 2.7375

Converting to percentage:

2.7375 * 100 = 273.75%

5 0
3 years ago
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