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Paul [167]
2 years ago
7

There are 18 apple candies and 12 cherry candies mixed in a bag. If one candy is chosen from that bad, the odds of picking an ap

ple candy are:
A: 1 out of 18
B: 2 out of 5
C: 3 out of 5
D: 3 out of 8
Mathematics
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]2 years ago
4 0
The answer is 3 out of 5. Why? Well, see below!

There are 18 apple candies and 12 cherry candies mixed in a bag. Since 18 + 12 = 30, there is a total of 30 candies in the bag. The odds of picking an apple candy are 18/30. This fraction can be reduced, however, since both 18 and 30 are even numbers and can be divided by at least 2. In simplest form, this fraction can be reduced by 6.

30 divided by 6 equals 5.
18 divided by 6 equals 3.

Because of this reduction to simplest form, the odds of picking an apple candy are 3/5 (fraction form), three out of 5 (word form), and 60% (percentage form).

Your final answer: C, or 3 out of 5, is your correct answer. If you need help, let me know and I will gladly assist you.
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I aould appreciate if someone helped​
Anni [7]
4/5 = 0.80
1/5 + 3/5 = 3/5 + 1/5
5 0
3 years ago
What is the value of y?
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

y =24

Step-by-step explanation:

The exterior angle is the sum of the opposite interior angles

y+18  + 3y -41  = y+49

Combine like terms

4y -23 = y+49

Subtract y from each side

4y -y -23 = y+49-y

3y -23 = 49

Add 23 to each side

3y -23+23 = 49 +23

3y = 72

Divide by 3

3y/3 = 72/3

y =24

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose an investment of $1,550 doubles in value every decade. The function f(x) = 1550(2)* give the value of the investment aft
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

$9300

Step-by-step explanation:

1550×2= 3100 3100× 3=9300

6 0
3 years ago
Find the percent of discount. Round to nearest tenth.
konstantin123 [22]
Your answer is 31% I believe. 
8 0
3 years ago
Prove that sin^4x - cos^4x = 2sin^2x - 1
Liula [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: From the given equation, taking the Left Hand Side (LHS) of the equation

Step 2: Simplify the LHS to make it equal to the Right Hand Side (RHS)

LHS = sin^4x - cos^4x = (sin²x)² - (cos²x)²

       = (sin²x - cos²x)(sin²x + cos²x)

       = sin²x - (1 - sin²x)  since sin²x + cos²x = 1

       = 2 sin²x - 1

       = RHS

Hence proved.

5 0
3 years ago
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