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bonufazy [111]
2 years ago
9

When the value of loans begins to drop, the net worth of financial institutions falls causing them to cut back on lending in a p

rocess called:
Business
1 answer:
yKpoI14uk [10]2 years ago
5 0

The correct option is a) deleveraging.

When the value of loans begins to drop, the net worth of financial institutions falls causing them to cut back on lending in a process called deleveraging.

<h2>What is Deleveraging?</h2>

Deleveraging is the process by which a business or person tries to reduce their overall financial leverage. Deleveraging, then, is the elimination of debt and the polar opposite of leverage. Paying up any outstanding debts and commitments on an entity's balance sheet right away is the quickest way to deleverage.

The following strategies can be used by a business to reduce its debt:

  • By offering assets, bonds, and a portion of the firm for less, a company can reduce its debt.
  • It can refinance existing debt to lower interest rates and monthly payments.
  • By spending extra cash from business operations, it can reduce its debt.
  • A publicly traded firm can reduce its debt by issuing more stock.
<h3><u>Formula</u></h3>

Deleveraging's effects can be assessed using financial ratios including return on assets, debt-to-equity, and return on equity.

Return on Assets (ROA) = Net Income / Average Assets

Debt-to-Equity Ratio = Total Debt / Total Equity

Return on Equity (ROE) = Net Income / Total Equity

Example:

Company A uses $3 million in equity and $7 million in debt to purchase a $10 million asset. The net income for the year is $600,000.

ROA is 600,000/10,000,000, or 6%.

Debt-to-equity ratio: 2.3x (7,000,000/3,000,000).

ROE is equal to 600,000/3,000,000, or 20%.

Assume that at the end of the year, Company A decided to pay $5,000,000 of liabilities using $5,000,000 of assets. The corporation now has $5,000,000 in assets and $2,000,000 in debt

ROA:

600,000,000/5,000,000=12%

Debt-to-equity ratio: 0.6x (2,000,000/3,000,000).

ROE is equal to 600,000/3,000,000, or 20%.

Investors and lenders will favor scenario 2 over scenario 1 since scenario 2 involves less leverage and the company reports more attractive ratios.

Learn more about Deleveraging and troubled Asset here:

brainly.com/question/24448358

#SPJ4

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The following information is available on a depreciable asset owned by Mutual Savings Bank:___________.
Sati [7]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense under the straight-line method is shown below:

= (Purchase cost - residual value) ÷ (Remaining life left)

= ($61,300 - $5,900) ÷ ( 8 - 2)

= $55,400 ÷ 6 years

= $9,233.33

Now for the six months it would be

= $9,233.33 × 6 months ÷ 12 months

= $4,616.67

The asset turnover is the turnover that comes by dividing the revenue from the average of the total assets

Here as per the given option the second option is correct as it correctly represents the asset turnover

8 0
3 years ago
The zero-based budget is the best method of budgeting because:
Troyanec [42]

Answer:

The zero-based budget ensures that every dollar you make is assigned a specific purpose

Explanation:

Zero-based budge: It is also known as "zero-sum budget".

It refers to the process of creating a budget from nothing without using the previous year’s budget. It enables a firm allocate all its resources to expenses and debt payment.

Zero based budget ensures that every income made is allocated to a particular purpose without a remainder. The major goal of zero based budget is to ensure that revenue (income) less expenditure (spendings) is equal to zero.

That is, in zero based budgeting,

Income - expenditure= zero (0).

In other words,

income= expenses

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Income statement data: Sales $ 5,000 Cost of goods sold 4,200 Balance sheet data: Inventory $ 550 Accounts receivable 110 Accoun
nydimaria [60]

Answer:

A. Accounts receivable period days = 8.0 days

B. Accounts payable period days = 23.4 days

C. Inventory period days = 48.0 days

D. Cash conversion cycle = 32.6 days

Explanation:

A. We know,

Accounts receivable period days = \frac{365}{Accounts receivable turnover}

Accounts receivable turnover = \frac{Net sales}{Average accounts receivable}

Given,

Sales  = $5,000

Accounts receivable = $110

As, there is no beginning balance of accounts receivable, the normal balance of accounts receivable will be treated as average accounts receivable.

Therefore, Accounts receivable turnover = \frac{5,000}{110}

Accounts receivable turnover = 45.5 times

Again, Accounts receivable period days = \frac{365}{45.5}

Accounts receivable period days = 8.0 days

B. We know,

Accounts payable period days = \frac{365}{Accounts payable turnover}

Again, to determine accounts payable period days, we have to find accounts payable turnover.

Accounts payable turnover = \frac{Purchases}{Average accounts payable}

As there is no purchase, cost of goods sold will be used to determine the payable turnover. Moreover, there is no beginning balance of accounts payable, we will use ending accounts payable as average payable.

Given,

Purchase (Cost of goods sold) = $4,200

Accounts payable = $270

Accounts payable turnover = \frac{4,200}{270}

Accounts payable turnover = 15.6 times

Therefore, Accounts payable period days = \frac{365}{15.6}

Accounts payable period days = 23.4 days

C. We know,

Inventory period days = \frac{365}{Inventory turnover}

To determine inventory period days, we have to find inventory turnover.

Inventory turnover = \frac{Cost of goods sold}{Average Inventory}

As there is no beginning balance of inventory, we will use ending inventory as average inventory.

Inventory turnover = \frac{4,200}{550}

Inventory turnover = 7.6 times

Therefore, Inventory period days = \frac{365}{7.6}

Inventory period days = 48.0 days

D. We know,

Cash conversion cycle = Days Inventory Outstanding + Days Sales Outstanding - Days Payable Outstanding

Here, Days Payable Outstanding = Accounts payable period days = 23.4 days

Days Inventory Outstanding = Inventory period days = 48.0 days

Days Sales Outstanding = Accounts receivable period days = 8.0 days

Putting the value in the formula, we can get,

Cash conversion cycle = 8.0 + 48.0 - 23.4 days

Cash conversion cycle = 32.6 days

6 0
4 years ago
Diego feels he has achieved some measure of respect as a cosmetic surgeon. Now, Diego focuses on being the best he can be. Which
amm1812

Diego is trying to focus and meet his self-actualization needs.

<h3>What is Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?</h3>

Abraham Maslow's theory of Hierarchical needs explains that people are driven to meet fundamental wants before moving on to more complex requirements.

His theory emphasizes five hierarchical needs, these are:

  • Physiological needs
  • Security and safety needs
  • Social Needs
  • Esteem Needs
  • Self Actualization needs

Therefore, based on the fact that Diego is concerned about his own personal growth and focusing on his career, we can conclude that Diego is trying to focus and meet his self-actualization needs.

Learn more about Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs here:

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4 0
3 years ago
WT Foods stock is selling for $38 a share. The 6-month $40 call on this stock is selling for $2.01 while the 6-month $40 put is
Daniel [21]

Answer:

2.1%

Explanation:

The computation of continuously compounded risk-free rate of return is shown below:-

Continuously compounded risk-free rate of return = -In(number)

= -ln((38 + 3.60 - 2.01) ÷ 40) ÷ (6 ÷ 12)

= 0.020605786

or

= 2.1%

For a better explanation, kindly find the spreadsheet as attached.

Hence we have applied the above formula to reach the continuously compounded risk-free rate of return.

7 0
3 years ago
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