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anastassius [24]
2 years ago
12

1. How many fifties are there in one hundred thousand?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
VladimirAG [237]2 years ago
7 0
There are 2,000 fifties in one hundred thousand
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Convert 1 cal/(m^2 * sec * °C) into BTU/(ft^2 * hr * °F)
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=0.03926\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

Step-by-step explanation:

To find : Convert 1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C} into \frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

Solution :

We convert units one by one,

1\text{ m}^2=10.7639\text{ ft}^2

1\text{ sec}=\frac{1}{3600}\text{ hour}

1\text{ cal}=0.003968\text{ BTU}

Converting temperature unit,

^\circ C\times \frac{9}{5}+32=^\circ F

1^\circ C\times \frac{9}{5}+32=33.8^\circ F

So, 1^\circ C=33.8^\circ F

Substitute all the values in the unit conversion,

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=\frac{0.003968}{10.7639\times \frac{1}{3600}\times 33.8}\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=\frac{0.003968}{0.101061}\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=0.03926\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

Therefore, The conversion of unit is 1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=0.03926\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

3 0
3 years ago
Find what percent 14 is of 23 to the nearest whole percent?
Kazeer [188]
14 is .608, roundedto the nearest percent 14 is 61% of 23
4 0
3 years ago
3*(-4) really confuses need help
Arturiano [62]

Answer:

-12

Step-by-step explanation:

When you multiply a positive by a negative, the answer is always a negative. If you multiply two negatives, the answer is always positive. If you multiply 2 positives, the answer will always be positive.

7 0
3 years ago
What is 20:10 in its simplest<br><br> form
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

2/1

Step-by-step explanation:

20/10 devided by 10 to both numbers

3 0
3 years ago
To evaluate log2(3), Autumn reasoned that since log2(2) = 1 and log2(4) = 2, log2(3) must be the average of 1 and 2 and therefor
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

log₂(3) = 1.585 ≠ 1.5

Her thinking is not valid because the technique of average is valid only  if the graph of the function is a straight line, but the graph of the log function is not a straight line.

Therefore the values cannot be taken by average

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

log₂(2) = 1

log₂(4) = 2

To evaluate :  log₂(3)

Now,

we know that

logₓ(y) = \frac{\log(y)}{\log(x)}        (Here the log has same base in the numerator and the denominator i.e 10)

therefore,

log₂(3) =  \frac{\log(3)}{\log(2)}

also,

log(2) = 0.3010

log(3) = 0.4771

thus,

log₂(3) =  \frac{0.4771}{0.3010}

or

log₂(3) = 1.585 ≠ 1.5

Her thinking is not valid because the technique of average is valid only  if the graph of the function is a straight line, but the graph of the log function is not a straight line.

Therefore the values cannot be taken by average

7 0
3 years ago
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