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dimulka [17.4K]
2 years ago
9

When preferred stock is cumulative and the directors either do not declare a dividend to preferred stockholders or declare one t

hat does not cover the total amount of the cumulative dividend, the unpaid dividend amount is called:
Business
1 answer:
Digiron [165]2 years ago
3 0

The unpaid dividend amount is known as dividend in arrears.

What is preferred stock?

Preferred stock entitles its holders to receipt of dividends before common stockholders and after the bondholders have received their interest payments.

What is cumulative preferred stock?

This has a  edge over the ordinary preferred stocks since its holders are entitled to receive arrears of dividends, dividends not declared in a particular year or the shortfall in dividends, which means in future years they would receive that year's dividends plus any unpaid dividends in earlier years.

The amount of preferred dividends that could not be paid in a particular year because there is no  cash available or that dividends were not declared are known as dividends in arrears.

Overall, the correct answer with which to fill the space in the case is dividends in arrears.

Read more on dividends in arrears on:brainly.com/question/14006397

#SPJ1

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Would your computation be different if the company reported $320,000 worth of contingent liabilities in the notes to the stateme
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answers to all the parts are listed below.

<h3>What is working capital?</h3>
  • Working capital is defined as the difference between current assets and current liabilities.
  • It is critical to estimate and compute working capital in order to allocate cash available for working capital.
  • If working capital is negative, it signifies that current liabilities exceed current assets, which is a negative indicator of liquidity.

(1-a) Computation of current liabilites = $107,600.

(Go through the table given below)

(1-b)  Working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities

  • Current assets = Total assets - Non-current assets = $590,00 - $350,000 = $240,000
  • Current liabilities = $107,600

So, Working capital = $240,000 - $107,600 = $132,400

(2) The computation would not alter since contingent liabilities are not recorded on the balance sheet; instead, they are disclosed in the notes to financial statements.

As a result, the $300,000 in contingent liabilities has no effect on any of the preceding calculations.

Therefore, all the answers are shown.

Know more about working capital here:

brainly.com/question/26214959

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The correct question is given below:

Diane Corporation is preparing its year-end balance sheet. The company records show the following selected amounts at the end of the year: |Total assets |$ 590,000 |Total non current assets |350,000 |Liabilities: | |Notes payable (8%, due in 5 years) |23,000 |Accounts payable |55,000 |Income taxes payable |11,000 |Liability for withholding taxes |4,000 |Rent revenue collected in advance |9,000 |Bonds payable (due in 15 years) |105,000 |Wages payable |9,000 |Property taxes payable |5,000 |Note payable (10%, due in 6 months) |14,000 |Interest payable |600 |Common stock |180,000 Required: 1-a. What is the amount of current liabilities? 1-b. Compute working capital. 2. Would your computation be different if the company reported $300,000 worth of contingent liabilities in the notes to its financial statements?

8 0
1 year ago
Select the true statement:
MAXImum [283]

Answer:

B) As volume increases variable cost per unit increases.

Explanation:

As the volume of production and output increases, variable costs will also increase because the variable cost of production is a constant amount per unit produced. Alternatively , when fewer products are produced, the variable costs connected with production will as a result decrease

Variable costs example include direct Labour and material costs

So if the company decides to increase its output (production of product) from example 50 units to 100 units, then more materials and direct Labour are needed

5 0
4 years ago
A realtor is trying to predict the value of a home. He has quantitative data available and has evidence that the home price has
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

a. linear regression.

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario the best choice would be a linear regression model. That is because this type of approach deals with seeing to what extent there exists a relationship between two variables. Which in this case would be the quantitative data/prices and the square footage of the home.

6 0
3 years ago
Joyce paid $144.00 for an item at the store that was 40 percent off the original price. what was the original price?
klasskru [66]


144 \div 40 \times 100 = 360
5 0
3 years ago
For each separate case below, follow the 3-step process for adjusting the accrued expense account: Step 1: Determine what the cu
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

a. Salaries expense (Dr.) $18,000

Salaries Payable (Cr.) $18,000

b. Interest Receivable (Dr.) $375

Interest Earned (Cr.) $375

c. Interest Expense (Dr.) $1,000

Interest Payable (Cr.) $1,000

Explanation:

The adjusting entries will be made once the expenses are paid. For now these expense are recorded as current liability because the payment needs to be made for the expenses that has already incurred. The salaries expense is recorded in contra account of salaries payable, once these salaries are paid then the expense will recorded as cash outflow.

5 0
3 years ago
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