Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
So I don’t know if that’s a comma or period..
If it’s 25% of 200,00= $50,000 is what she gets
If it’s 25% of 200= $50 is what she get
I am not sure. that is too confusing for my little brain
Answer:
Side MQ is similar to side MR.
- This is because since M is the mid point of QR, both MQ and MR are half of QR.
Angle MXQ and MYR are 90°
Sides QX and RY are similar.
- This is because angle X and Y are 90° and MQ and MR are equal.
∴ MQX is congruent to MRY.
