Answer:
Company 1 = $2 per share
Company 2 = $2.50 per share
Explanation:
Given that,
EBIT for both companies = $1,000
Number of shares outstanding for company 1 = 500
Number of shares outstanding for company 2 = 300
Interest paid by company 2 = $250
EPS for company 1:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $0) ÷ 500
= $2 per share
EPS for company 2:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $250) ÷ 300
= $750 ÷ 300
= $2.50 per share
Answer:
24 million shares ; $16 million
Explanation:
The computation of the weightage number of treasury shares are shown below:
Number of shares Price Total
2 $22 $44 million
1 $28 $28 million
Total 3 $72 million
So, the weighted average number of shares would be
= $72 ÷ 3 = 24 million shares
Now the journal entry would be
Cash A/c Dr $64 million (2 million treasury shares × $32)
To Paid in capital - share repurchase A/c $16 million
To Treasury stock $48 million (24 million treasury shares × $2)
(Being the treasury shares are sold)
Answer:
Decrease in the interest rate
Explanation:
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows
let me use an example to illustrate
the present value of $100 in year 0 discounted at 6% = $100
the present value of $100 one year from now discounted at 6% = $94.33
the present value of $100 two years from now discounted at 6% = $89
We can see that present value decreases with an increase in time
2. the present value of $100 one year from now discounted at 6% = $94.33
the present value of $90 one year from now discounted at 6% = $84.91
We can see that present value decreases with a decrease in the future value.
3. the present value of $100 one year from now discounted at 6% = $94.33
the present value of $100 one year from now discounted at 5% = $95.24
We can see that the lower the discount rate, the higher the present value
Answer:
Qualify for an A.P.R. based on their creditworthiness
Explanation:
After the introductory period is over you will be set a new APR