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dusya [7]
2 years ago
8

A modification to a product that changes the taste, texture, sound, smell, or appearance is a(n) _______.

Business
1 answer:
Paha777 [63]2 years ago
6 0

A modification to a product that changes the taste, texture, sound, smell, or appearance is a <u>style modification.</u>

<u></u>

Product modification is the process of improving already-existing items by making the required adjustments to their nature, size, packing, colour, and other attributes in order to better meet changing market demands. The goal of the product change is to retain current demand, draw in new customers, and effectively compete with rivals.

The company's earnings improve as a result of increased sales, which are aided by this. The product's look is altered as part of the style enhancement plan. Nevertheless, a product's quality never changes. Here, the product's packaging or its shape, colour, or other characteristics may be altered. The fashion business frequently employs this tactic.

To learn more about Product modification here,

brainly.com/question/13922806

#SPJ1

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Select the interjection in the sentence.
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The aztecs were ancient/primitive

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4 years ago
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The graph shows a point of equilibrium.
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

The correct answer is that the price of the product will decrease in order to meet the equilibrium

Explanation:

Equilibrium point is the point where the quantity supplied is equal to the quantity demanded. And the equilibrium price as well as the quantity is evaluated through the intersection of the demand the supply.

When the quantity which is supplied is greater or more than the quantity demanded, it will create a situation of surplus. And if the product price is decreased or lowered down, then the quantity demanded of the product will increase or rise until it reached to equilibrium. In short, the surplus drives the price down.

7 0
4 years ago
A seller sold a house to a buyer allowing the buyer to take over the loan on a "subject to" basis. After 2 years, the buyer defa
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Answer:

The Seller would be primarily liable

Explanation:

Since in the question, it is mentioned that the seller had sold a house to a buyer for taking up the loan i.e. based on a subject. But after two years the buyer does the default and does not pay the money.

Therefore for lending the note, the seller is primarily liable as the seller permit the buyer for taking the loan

4 0
3 years ago
Thomas Kratzer is the purchasing manager for the headquarters of a large insurance company chain with a central inventory operat
n200080 [17]

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a. 190 Units

b.95 Units

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Please see attachment

4 0
4 years ago
Consider the multifactor APT with two factors. Portfolio A has a beta of .5 on factor 1 and a beta of 1.25 on factor 2. The risk
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Answer:

(B) 16.25%

Explanation:

Using the multifactor APT,

E(R_{A} ) = R_{f} + \beta_{1}.RP_{1} + \beta_{2}.RP_{2}

where E(R_{A} ) = expected return on portfolio A,

R_{f} = the risk free rate of return,

\beta_{i} = beta on factor "i"

RP_{i} =  risk premium on factor "i".

Therefore,

return on portfolio A = 7% + (0.5 * 1%) + (1.25 * 7%)

= 0.07 + (0.5 * 0.01) + (1.25 * 0.07)

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= 0.1625

= 16.25%.

7 0
3 years ago
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