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lions [1.4K]
2 years ago
12

all plans must cover at least the standard part d coverage or its actual equivalent which of the following

Business
1 answer:
True [87]2 years ago
5 0

Payment of an annual deductible, 25% cost sharing up to the coverage gap, a share of the cost of both generic and name-brand pharmaceuticals during the gap and co-pays or coinsurance after the coverage gap are all necessary for Part D coverage.

<h3>What does standard Part D coverage include?</h3>

Every plan must provide the actuarial equivalent of the minimum Part D coverage. When the beneficiary reaches the catastrophic coverage threshold, they are required to pay either co-pays for generic and brand-name medications or coinsurance of 5%, whichever is higher, as part of the standard Part D coverage.

Payment of an annual deductible, 25% cost sharing up to the coverage gap, a share of the cost of both generic and name-brand pharmaceuticals during the gap. and co-pays or coinsurance after the coverage gap are all necessary for Part D coverage.

  • Carline can continue receiving Original Medicare while simultaneously signing up for a Medicare prescription drug plan through a private business that has an agreement with the government to exclusively offer such medication coverage to qualified Medicare beneficiaries.
  • All plans must offer the actuarially equivalent of the minimum required Part D coverage.
  • The basic benefit comprises a yearly deductible and a coverage gap, formerly known as the "Donut Hole". Sponsors may also provide plans that are different from the standard benefit but actuarially similar to it.

Learn more about Part D coverage here:

brainly.com/question/17207651

#SPJ4

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The balance sheet of Subsidiary shows assets of $86,400 and liabilities of $15,000. The fair value of the assets is $90,000 and
Andrews [41]

Answer:

b. $20,000

Explanation:

Goodwill = Investment in Subsidiary - (Asset With book value - Liability with book value) - (Fair value of Asset - Book value of Asset)

Goodwill = $95,000 - ($86,400 - $15,000) - ($90,000 - $86,400)

Goodwill = $95,000 - $71,400 - $3,600

Goodwill = $20,000

So, parent should record goodwill on this purchase of $20,000

8 0
3 years ago
A dollar in hand today is worth_______(less than/more than/equivalent) a dollar to be received in the future because if you had
Free_Kalibri [48]

Answer:

more than

earn interest

discount cash flow (DCF)

Explanation:

The concept of future value represents the amount that a lump sum or series of cash flows will achieve after a given period when compounded at an interest rate. This means that a dollar in hand today is worth more than a dollar to be received since it can be applied to earn interest.

The time value of money, which allows us to evaluate different investments, is also known as discount cash flow (DCF).

3 0
4 years ago
A company understated its ending inventory balance by $5,000 in 2018. What impact will this error have on cost of goods sold and
madreJ [45]

Answer:

COGS overstated for 5,000

Explanation:

<em>The COGS will be overstated  for the same ammount,</em> that is because of the inventory identity.

$$Beginning Inventory + Purchase = Ending Inventory + COGS

If ending Inventory has a problem, it will be transferred to COGS as well to equalize the formula

If ending Inventory is understated it means their alue is less than it's real value,

$$Beginning Inventory + Purchase \neq Ending Inventory (Real Inventory - Understimation) + COGS

so to balance the formula COGS need to be overstated.

$$Beginning Inventory + Purchase = Ending Inventory (Real Inventory - Understimation) + COGS(Real COGS + EI error)

3 0
4 years ago
Julie and Barry Spinos purchased a house for $96,400. They made a 25 percent down payment and financed the remaining amount at 5
Alinara [238K]

Answer: $79.30

Explanation:

Cost of the house = $96400

Down payment = 25% × $96400 = $24100

Mortgage = $96400 - $24100 = $72300

Interest = 5.5%

Time = 5 years

Monthly payment.= $410.66

The interest for first payment will be:

= $72300 × 5.5% × 1/12

= $72300 × 0.055 × 0.08333

= $331.36

Therefore, the amount of the first monthly payment is used to reduce the principal will be:

= $410.66 - $331.36

= $79.30

5 0
3 years ago
The difference between the total actual cost incurred and the total standard cost is called the:
nlexa [21]

The variance is the  difference between the total actual cost incurred and the total standard cost.

<h3>What is variance in accounting?</h3>

In the field of accounting, the variance is simply referred to as the difference that exists between the forecasted amount and the actual amount.

Therefore from the definition that we have above the answer to this question is variance.

Read more on variance here: brainly.com/question/15858152

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
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