Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Receiving provides 12,000 receiving hours and costs $60,000 per year.
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 60,000/12,000= $5 per hour
Answer:
The correct asnwer is $-214 billion.
Explanation:
A surplus occurs when an account exceeds the credit after having paid all its debts and obligations.
As the example says, assuming that China’s net debt forgiveness was zero in 2012, then the net balance of China's financial account balance would be -214 billion.
This means that China would be facing a deficit.
A defit means that more money comes out of our company's account than it enters.
Which causes China to have a<u> negative balance account.</u>
Minimum wage I think lol may be wrong
The product-market combination that has the greatest potential is B. Fashion items to the younger segment.
It should be noted that the potential of a particular product can be determined based on the people that the product is designed for.
In such a case, a product that's designed for the younger generations will attract more customers since younger people generally like things that are trendy.
Therefore, in this case, the fashion items for the younger segment have more potential.
In conclusion, the correct option is B.
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Answer:
The WACC of the firm is 11.91%
Explanation:
The WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the rate of return that a business is expected to pay to all of its security holders- bonds, common stock, preferred stock- or is the cost of capital for the business.
To calculate the WACC, we use the following formula,
WACC = D/A * (1-tax rate) * rD + E/A * rE
Where,
- D/A and E/A is the weightage of debt and assets as a proportion of total assets
- rD * (1-tax rate) is the after tax cost of debt
- rE is the cost of equity or required rate of return on equity
We first need to calculate the required rate of return on equity (r). We will use the CAPM formula for r.
r = 0.034 + 1.37 * 0.082
r = 0.14634 or 14.634%
The total assets are equal to,
Assets = Debt + Equity
If for every $1 of equity, there is $0.45 of debt as given by debt-equity ratio.
Then,
Assets = 0.45 + 1
Assets = $1.45
WACC = 0.45/1.45 * (1-0.23) * 0.076 + 1/1.45 * 0.14634
WACC = 0.11908 or 11.908% rounded off to 11.91%
