Answer:
preferred habitat
Explanation:
According to the preferred habitat theory, if the expected returns from investment of a particular investment maturity is large enough, investors would shift from their preferred maturities.
In this question, there is a shift from the preferred maturity (short-term securities) to a long-term securities when interest rate changes
The pure expectations theory assumes that bonds of any maturity are perfect substitutes for each other. For example, if an investor buys a 10 year bond and holds it for 1 year, the return is the same as buying a 1 year bond. The theory also assumes that risk premium does not exist and a security only earns its risk free rate
Liquidity premium theory states that risk premium increases with the maturity of a bond. The theory predicts that the yield curve is upward sloping due to liquidity premium
According to the segmented market theory, each bond maturity segment can be thought of as a segment market in which yield are a function of the demand and supply for funds in that maturity.
Answer:
$844,000
Explanation:
Given that,
Accounts Receivable = $900,000
Credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts per books before adjustment = $50,000
Expected amount of uncollectible = $56,000
Bad debt expense at the end of the period is determined by subtracting the credit balance of allowance for doubtful accounts from the expected amount of uncollectible.
Bad debt expense:
= Expected amount of uncollectible - Credit balance
= $56,000 - $50,000
= $6,000
At the end of the period, the allowance for doubtful accounts has a balance of $56,000 that are to be uncollectible.
The cash realizable value of the accounts receivable at December 31, after adjustment, is determined by simply subtracting the Allowance for doubtful accounts from the accounts receivable. It is calculated as follows:
= Accounts Receivable - Allowance for doubtful accounts
= $900,000 - $56,000
= $844,000
I think the likely response from the bank is that probably the date when you issued the checks is not the same when the beneficiary cashed or deposited them.
Answer:
Reorder point = (weekly demand * lead time) + (Z * standard deviation * √lead time) = (294 * 10) + (2.326 * 90 * √10) = 2,940 + 661.99 = 3,602 units
Old safety stock = Z * standard deviation * √lead time = 662 units
new safety stock = 331
331 = Z * 90 * √10
Z = 331 / 284.60 = 1.163
Using Normal distribution function, the new confidence interval is 87.76%
Answer:
Units sold exceeds units produced
Explanation:
The net operating income under variable costing system is always higher than absorption costing system when units sold exceeds units produced. As variable cost doesn't include fixed manufacturing overhead unlike absorption costing, when the net operating income under it now exceed that of absorption, it's definitely am increase in sales that's responsible for that.
