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Volgvan
4 years ago
10

Pincus Associates uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. During 2021, its first year of operations, Pincus provided

a total of $250,000 of services on account. In 2021, the company wrote off uncollectible accounts of $10,000. By the end of 2021, cash collections on accounts receivable totaled $210,000. Pincus estimates that 20% of the accounts receivable balance at 12/31/2021 will prove uncollectible.Required:1. What journal entry did Pincus record to write off uncollectible accounts during 2021?2. What journal entry should Pincus record to recognize bad debt expense for 2021?
Business
1 answer:
Lady_Fox [76]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Ending Accounts Receivable = Services on Account - Amount Written Off - Collection of accounts receivables

= $250,000 - $10,000 - $210,000

= $30,000

Required Balance in Allowance for Un-collectible accounts at Year end = Accounts Receivable at 12/31/2021 * 20%

= $30,000 * 20%

= $6,000

Bad debt Expense = Required Balance in Allowance account + Amount written off

= $6,000 + $10,000

= $16,000

                             Journal Entries

Event                  General Journal                Debit     Credit

1          Allowance for doubtful accounts   $10,000

                  To Accounts Receivable                         $10,000

2         Bad debt Expense                           $16,000

                  To Allowance for doubtful accounts       $16,000

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4 0
3 years ago
Consider the labour statistics for the country of Menap, which consists of five districts and a capital region with varying degr
choli [55]

Answer:

The correct answer is 414 million.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

We can calculate the labor force by using following formula:

Labor force = Total unemployed + Total employed

By putting the value in the formula, we get

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= 136 million + 278 million

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6 0
3 years ago
The stock of Big Joe's has a beta of 1.38 and an expected return of 16.26 percent. The risk-free rate of return is 3.42 percent.
Oksana_A [137]

Answer:

d. 12.72%

Explanation:

To calculate the expected return on the market, we will use the Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) equation.

The CAPM allows to relate the risk-free rate of return (RFROR), the market risk premium, the beta of an asset and the expected return of this asset.

Expected return = risk-free ROR + (Beta*Market risk premium)

In this case we know all the parameters but the Market risk premium (MRP), so we have:

ER=RFROR+\beta*MRP\\\\\\16.26=3.42+1.38*MRP\\\\MRP=(16.26-3.42)/1.38=9.30

We also know that the beta of the market, by definition, is equal to one. So now that we know the market risl premium we can calculate the expected return on the market:

ER=RFROR+\beta*MRP\\\\ER=3.42+1*9.30=3.42+9.30=12.72

The expected return on the market is 12.72%.

6 0
4 years ago
An investment, which is worth 26,800 dollars and has an expected return of 4.28 percent, is expected to pay fixed annual cash fl
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

Present Value =  $22,663.69

Explanation:

<em>The present value of a sum expected in the future is the worth today given an opportunity cost interest rate. In another words ,it is amount receivable today that would make the investor to be indifferent between the amount receivable today and the future sum.</em>

The present value of a lump sum can be worked out as follows:

PV = FV × (1+r)^(-n)

PV - Present value - ?

FV - Future value - 26,800

r- Interest rate per period - 4.28%

n- number of periods- 4

PV = 26,800 × (1.0428)^(-4)=22,663.69

PV =  $22,663.69

7 0
4 years ago
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Lisa [10]

Answer:

(c) $5

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Remember, To calculate marginal cost, we divide the change in production costs by the change in quantity.

In this example, the change in production cost is $200 (for hiring an additional worker) while the change in quantity of taco is 40 (increase in marginal productivity).

The marginal cost= $200/40

we get $5 as the marginal cost.

5 0
3 years ago
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