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Marat540 [252]
2 years ago
11

If a $1,000 increase in income leads to an $800 increase in consumption expenditures, then the marginal propensity to consume is

?
Business
2 answers:
sp2606 [1]2 years ago
4 0

If a $1,000 increase in income leads to an $800 increase in consumption expenditures, then marginal propensity to consume is 0.8.

Given that a $1,000 increase in income leads to an $800 increase in consumption expenditures.

We are required to find the marginal propensity to consume.

Marginal propensity to consume is the ratio of increase in consumption and the increase in income. It is also known as MPC.

MPC=ΔC/ΔI

ΔC=Change in consumption

ΔI= Change in income.

MPC=800/1000

=0.8

Hence if a $1,000 increase in income leads to an $800 increase in consumption expenditures, then marginal propensity to consume is 0.8.

Learn more about marginal propensity to consume at brainly.com/question/17930875

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Roman55 [17]2 years ago
3 0

The marginal propensity to consume is  0.8.

explanation;

Marginal propensity = change in consumption/ change in income

                                   = 800/1000

                                     = 0.8

In economics, the marginal propensity to eat is defined as the proportion of an aggregate raise in pay that a patron spends at the intake of products and offerings, instead of saving it.

The marginal propensity to shop is the portion of each more greenback of a family's earnings that's saved. MPC is the element of every more dollar of a family's profits that is consumed or spent.

Marginal propensity to eat refers to the proportion of greater income that someone spends in preference to saves. The time period and its formulation are primarily based on observations made by using famed.

Learn more about marginal propensity  here:- brainly.com/question/17930875

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2 years ago
A two-year bond with par value $1,000 making annual coupon payments of $99 is priced at $1,000.
iVinArrow [24]

Answer:

(a) 9.9%

(b)  10.09%

The further explanation is given below.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Coupon payment

=  $99

Price

=  $1,000

(a)

The Yield to maturity (YTM) will be:

= \frac{C+\frac{F-P}{n} }{\frac{F+P}{2} }

where,

C = Coupon payment

P = Price

n = years to maturity

F = Face value

On putting the estimated values is the above formula, we get

⇒  99+\frac{0}{1000}

⇒  .099

⇒  9.9%

(b)

Although the 1st year coupon was indeed reinvested outside an interest rate of r%, cumulative money raised will indeed be made at the end of 2nd year.  

= [99\times (1 + r)] + 1,099

Came to the realization compound YTM is therefore a function of r, as is shown throughout the table below:

Rate (r)             Total proceeds         Realized YTM ((\frac{proceeds}{1000} )^{.5} - 1)

7.9%                      1205.8                                   9.8%

9.9%                             1207.8                                   9.9%

11.9%                      1209.8                                  9.99%

Now,

Overall proceeds realized YTM:

= \frac{proceeds}{1000} -18 \ percent \ 1,\frac{2081208}{1000} - 1

= 0.0991

= 9.91 \ percent \ 10 \ percent \ 1,\frac{2101210}{1000}- 1

= 0.1000

= 10.00 \ percent \ 12 \ percent \ 1,\frac{2121212}{1000}-1

= 0.1009

= 10.09%

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