Answer:
the balance sheet is missing:
Balance Sheet (In millions of Dollars)
ASSETS
Cash $6.0
Accounts Receivable 14.0
Average Inventory 12.0
Fixed Assets, net 40.0
TOTAL ASSETS $72.0
LIABILITIES AND EQUITY
Accounts Payable $10.0
Salaries and Benefits Payable 2.0
Other current Liabilities 10.0
Long-term debt 12.0
Equity 38.0
TOTAL LIABILITIES AND EQUITY $72.0
a. Determine the length of the inventory conversion period.
- inventory conversion period = average inventory / (COGS/365) = 73 days
b. Determine the length of the receivables conversion period.
- receivables conversion period = accounts receivables / (net sales/365) = 51.1 days
c. Determine the length of the operating cycle.
- length of operating cycle = 73 + 51.1 = 124.1 days
d. Determine the length of the payables deferral period.
- length of the payables deferral period = accounts payables / (COGS/365) = 60.83 days
e. Determine the length of the cash conversion cycle.
- cash conversion cycle = 73 + 51.1 - 60.83 = 63.27 days
f. What is the meaning of the number you calculated in Part e?
- How long does it take to turn inventories into cash, it is a measure of asset liquidity.
Explanation:
It all depends on the market conventions and the bond documentation.
1 In most countries, traditionally fixed coupon bonds don’t have their coupons day counted. So if the frequency is twice a year, and the annual coupon rate is 5.5%, then each semi-annual coupon is exactly 5.5/2=2.75%. However a lot of other instruments, e.g. fixed swap legs, loans, and bonds that are really “loan participation notes”, etc. usually have their fixed coupons day counted. So each coupon amount will vary a little depending on the number of days in the accrual period, weekends and holidays.
Answer: C $22,100
Explanation: Bank Reconciliation
8/31/10 Bank Balance $21,650
Add:
8/31/10 Deposit in transit. $3,900
Less:
8/31/10 Outstanding Chq. $2,750
8/30/10 Rtd Chq. $600
8/31/10 Bank Charges. $100
Cash book balance $22,100
The answer in the space provided is 'coming from'. It is because the countries like China and India has government which has less over sight which enables them to transport goods from chemical manufacturers because of their government that are not that strict in terms of transporting goods to other countries compared to others countries that have more over sight and are more strict.
Answer:
Department Y $9000
Department Z $5000
Explanation:
Delivery expense can be calculated using the allocation and apportionment method for Y and Z.
<u>Step 1. Allocation</u>
The costs that are directly attributable to the departments would be allocated to its relevant department. Here, $1500 are the direct expenses for the deliveries for the department Y, so at the first step,
Department Y Cost = $1500
For the department Z, their are no direct expenses for the deliveries,so at the first step,
Department Z Cost = $0
<u>Step 1. Apportionment</u>
The indirect cost of $12500 ($14000 - $1500) would be apportioned among department Y and Z.
So
Department Y = $1500 + $12500 x 60% = $9000
Department Z = $12500 x 40% = $5000
