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7nadin3 [17]
1 year ago
8

15) keeping a product generic as long as possible before customizing is known as:__________

Business
1 answer:
ASHA 777 [7]1 year ago
6 0

Postponement is the practice of keeping a product generic for as long as possible before modifying it.

By deferring current investment in a good or service until the very last minute, postponement is a business strategy that tries to maximize reward and reduce risk. A supply chain technique for quick adjustment to shifting market conditions is postponement. Lead times are lowered, working capital is cut and waste is eliminated. Postponement is a make-to-order strategy in contrast to conventional make-to-forecast methods, when things are quickly customized from stocks of nearly complete products, frequently close to customers. Modern enterprises employ postponement as a key supply chain management strategy in order to survive in the cutthroat business climate of today.

Learn more about postponement

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Suspect Corp. issued a bond with a maturity of 30 years and a semiannual coupon rate of 6 percent 4 years ago. The bond currentl
kifflom [539]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of each point is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

First Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $45,000,000

Market Value = 95% × $45,000,000

= $42,750,000

Annual Coupon Rate = 6%

Semiannual Coupon Rate = 3%

= 3% × $45,000,000

= $1,350,000

Time to Maturity = 26 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 52

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$42,750,000 = $1,350,000 × PVIFA(i%, 52) + $45,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 52)

N = 52

PV = -42750000

PMT = 1350000

FV = 45000000

I = 3.20%

Semiannual YTM = 3.20%

Annual YTM = 2 × 3.20%

Annual YTM = 6.40%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40% × (1 - 0.40)

= 3.84%

Second Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $50,000,000

Market Value = 54% × $50,000,000

= $27,000,000

Time to Maturity = 15 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 30

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$27,000,000 = $50,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 30)

Using a financial calculator:

N = 30

PV = -27000000

PMT = 0

FV = 50000000

I = 2.075%

Semiannual YTM = 2.075%

Annual YTM = 2 × 2.075%

= 4.15%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15% × (1 - 0.40)

= 2.49%

a. The total book value of debt is

Total Book Value of Debt = $45,000,000 + $50,000,000

= $95,000,000

b. The total market value of debt is

Total Market Value of Debt = $42,750,000 + $27,000,000

= $69,750,000

c. The estimate of the aftertax cost of debt is

Weight of first Issue of Debt is

= $42,750,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.6129

Weight of second issue of Debt

= $27,000,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.3871

So,  

Estimated After-tax Cost of Debt is

= 0.6129 × 3.84% + 0.3871 × 2.49%

= 3.32%

6 0
3 years ago
Why might one project have the highest pw while a different project has the largest irr? explain?
Hunter-Best [27]
<span>The difference may lie in the project life, sometimes referenced as the planning horizon. A project may have a large internal rate of return (irr), but a very short project life. A second project might have a lower irr, but a much longer life. In that case, the second project will return less per year, but will provide a return for many more years, resulting in a higher pw.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE ANSWER WITH 100% THE CORRECT ANSWER ASAP IF YOU DON'T KNOW THE ANSWER THEN DON'T ANSWER
valkas [14]

1. Unions have been in decline since the 1960s because of

Answer: <u>A. foreign competition.</u>

Explanation: Unions were often conducted in the past in order to protect workers from<em> "arbitrary decisions" </em>of employers. Such decisions resulted to the<em> laying off of workers </em>and<em> cutting of wages</em>. On the contrary, business owners have a different goal. They wanted to make more profit by cutting the wages, so they didn't like the unions. However, unions have been in decline in the 1960s, mainly because of international/foreign competitions. This is because the "bargaining power of the unions as they represent the employees were reduced."

2. When a bank evaluates a person for a loan, what does the word "capacity" refer to?

Answer: <u>C. The ability to make payments on time.</u>

Explanation: A bank evaluates a person for a loan according to his "capability to pay" the loaned amount. It is not according to his willingness to pay, but to his<em> "ability to return the money</em>." In order to know whether a person is capable of repaying the money on time, the bank analyzes the borrower's gross income and his debt.

6 0
3 years ago
PLZ HELP
pochemuha

Answer:

D. Government agency report

Explanation:

D. makes the most sense!! Good luck!

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
EA1.
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

Explanation:

ummmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm'

5 0
3 years ago
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