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1 year ago

What is the future value of a 500 annuity payment over wight years if interest rates are 14 percent?

Business

1 answer:

Setler [38]1 year ago

6 0

The future value of a 500 annuity payment over wight years if interest rates are 14 percent is $6,616.38.

The value of an asset at a future date is its future value. It is the present value multiplied by the accumulation function, and it estimates the nominal future sum of money that a certain amount of money is "worth" at a given point in the future under the assumption of a specific interest rate, or rate of return. The value is unadjusted for inflation or any other future-related variables that may impact the real value of money. Calculations of the time worth of money use this.

The value of money changes over time; for example, $100 now is worth less than $100 in five years. This is because $100 invested today in a stock, a bond, or any other investment will grow or decrease depending on the rate of return. Additionally, due to inflation (an increase in the purchasing price), if $100 is used to acquire an item today, it's probable that $100 won't be enough to do so in five years.

Learn more about future value here:

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3 years ago

Over a long period of time Sears has slipped from being America's largest retailer to struggling for survival in recent years. W

Kaylis [27]

Answer:

I think Sears need to stop diversifying its product too much and focus on improving internal human resources.

Explanation:

The largest expense that Sears made occurred during their effort to add more female customers to shop at their place.

Sears was known for its DieHard, Craftsman and Kenmore brands that attract mostly male customers to their stores. They started “The Softer Side of Sears” which focused on adding more products for female customers.

But, in the process of doing so, Sears neglected their already successful male products department with a lot of employees who sacrifice a lot of their time and effort into making Sears as big as it is.

In order to restore to its former glory, Sears need to stop focusing on new market with a lot of strong competitors and focused on improving skill set of employees in their successful department. They can do this by investing in their education, increasing the budget for their research and development, etc.

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3 years ago

Which of the following is a condition necessary to exclude an obligation from current liabilities? Entry field with incorrect an

lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.

Explanation:

A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).

So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.

The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.

Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
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3 years ago

If an investor buys enough stocks, he or she can, through diversification, eliminate all of the market risk inherent in owning s

dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

The given statement is True.

If an investor buys enough stocks, he or she can, through diversification, eliminate all of the market risk inherent in owning stocks, but as a general rule it will not be possible to eliminate all market risk.

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2 years ago

Consider a single factor APT. Portfolio A has a beta of 2.0 and an expected return of 19%. Portfolio B has a beta of 1.0 and an

Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

Invest 50% in portfolio A and the rest 50% in risk-free asset to create Portfolio D, we will have the same systematic risk as that of Portfolio B.

The expected return of Portfolio D = 11%

Portfolio D and Portfolio B have the same beta of 1.0. But, portfolio D has a higher return of 11% as compared to the expected return of Portfolio B of 8%.

Buy Portfolio D, and sell Portfolio B.

Explanation:

A risk free asset is referred to an asset that provides a virtually guaranteed return and no possibility of loss.

Risk-free asset has a beta of 0.

Portfolio D Beta = Wa × Portfolio A Beta + Wb × Risk-free asset beta

1.0 = Wa * 2.0 + Wb * 0

Wa = 1.0/2.0

Wa = 0.50

If we invest 50% in portfolio A and the rest 50% in risk-free asset to create Portfolio D, we will have the same systematic risk as that of Portfolio B.

The expected return of Portfolio D = 0.50 × 0.19 + 0.50 ×0.03

The expected return of Portfolio D = 0.11

The expected return of Portfolio D = 11%

Portfolio D and Portfolio B have the same beta of 1.0. But, portfolio D has a higher return of 11% as compared to the expected return of Portfolio B of 8%.

Buy Portfolio D, and sell Portfolio B.

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3 years ago