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dlinn [17]
3 years ago
8

A decrease in direct materials costs often results in a,a. Favorable sales volume variance. b. None of the answers are correct.

c. Unfavorable sales volume variance. d. Unfavorable sales price variance.
Business
2 answers:
andreev551 [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B) None of the answers are correct.

Explanation:

Lower costs of direct materials result in favorable material cost variance, this means that the estimated costs of production where actually higher than the actual costs of production.

Lower production costs should help the company either increase sales volume by decreasing price, or increase profit margins. But the company will decide which approach to take, either sell more units or earn more money per unit sold.

crimeas [40]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: The correct answer is "b. None of the answers are correct.".

Explanation: A decrease in direct materials costs means that a lower price than planned was paid for materials therefore it is favorable to the company since it will have less costs than planned and as a consequence a greater profit on each sale.

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What is Nick causing? Nick has set up his steel factory near a community lake. The waste from his factory is directly thrown in
gregori [183]
<span>Nick is causing pollution specifically water pollution. Since he is contaminating the community lake. This kind of environmental deprivation happens when pollutants are straight or meanderingly discharged into water forms lacking passable treatment to eliminate harmful composites. This can damage the animals existing by the lake, and the people breathing the air.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cleveland Corporation acquired a machine for $42,000 and has recorded depreciation for two years using the straight line method
dsp73

Answer:

The book value of the machine at the end of year 2 is $35,000

Explanation:

Straight line method depreciates the asset on its useful life after deducting salvage value from the cost of the asset.

Depreciation per year = ( Cost of Machine - Residual Value ) / Useful life

Depreciation per year = ( $42,000 - $7,000 ) / 10 years

Depreciation per year = $3,500 per year

Book value of machine at the end of year 2 = $42,000 - ( $3,500 x 2 )

Book value of machine at the end of year 2 = $42,000 - $7,000

Book value of machine at the end of year 2 = $35,000

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following activities is not a component of the operating cycle?A)Sale of merchandiseB)Payment of employees' salarie
Sloan [31]

Answer:

B)Payment of employees' salaries

Explanation:

Operating cycle: The operating cycle is that cycle in which the firm makes the collection of cash with respect to the sales and make the payment with respect to the purchase of the inventory

The cycle start from days of inventory outstanding, days of sales outstanding, and days of payable outstanding

In mathematically,  

Operating cycle = days of inventory outstanding + days of sales outstanding - days of payable outstanding

Thus, option B is correct.

8 0
3 years ago
he appropriate discount rate for the following cash flows is 8 percent compounded quarterly. Year Cash Flow 1 $700 2 700 3 0 4 1
rewona [7]

Answer:

Thus, the present value is $2045.52.

Explanation:

Use the below formula to find the present value:

Present value = FV ÷ (1 + r/4)^(n*4)

Present value :

=\frac{700}{(1 + \frac{0.08}{4} )^{1 \times 4} } + \frac{700}{(1 + \frac{0.08}{4} )^{2 \times 4} } + \frac{0}{(1 + \frac{0.08}{4} )^{3 \times 4} } +\frac{1100}{(1 + \frac{0.08}{4} )^{4 \times 4} } \\ \\= \frac{700}{1.0824}+\frac{700}{1.1716} +0+\frac{1100}{1.3727} \\= 2045.52

Thus, the present value is $2045.52.

4 0
3 years ago
Problem 8-15 Comparing Investment Criteria [LO 1, 3, 4, 6] Consider the following two mutually exclusive projects: Year Cash Flo
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

Payback period (A)  is 3.44 years

Payback period (B)  is  2.39 years

Explanation:

Cash Flow (A)   –$428,000; $42,500;  $63,500;  $80,500;  $543,000

Cash Flow (B)   –$41,500; $20,700; $13,000; $20,100; $16,900

The payback period will note consider discounting rate, thus we do manual counting till the cash flow equal to zero (0)

Payback period = Number of Years immediately preceding year of break-even + (investment - cashflow of Years immediately preceding year of break-even)/ cashflow of year break- even

Project A will be break even in Year 4, then

Payback period (A)  = 3 years + ($428,000 - ($42,500+$63,500+$80,500))/ $543,000 = 3.44 years

Project B will be break even in Year 3, then

Payback period (B)  = 2 years + ($41,500 - ($20,700+$13,000))/$20,100 = 3.44 years = 2.39 years

8 0
3 years ago
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