1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Dima020 [189]
2 years ago
14

If markets are efficient, what should be the correlation coefficient between abnormal stock returns for two non-overlapping time

periods? explain.
Business
1 answer:
LUCKY_DIMON [66]2 years ago
8 0

The correlation coefficient between stock returns for two non-overlapping periods should be zero. If not, one could operate returns from one period to predict returns in later periods and make abnormal profits.

<h3>What are abnormal stock returns?</h3>

Abnormal returns in stock market trading are variances between performance of a particular stock or portfolio and expected return over a specific time period. The predicted return is typically calculated using a wide index, like the S&P 500, or a national index, like the Nikkei 225. A return that differs from the anticipated return on an investment is called an abnormal return. Investors can estimate risk-adjusted performance by looking for atypical returns, which can be either positive or negative in direction.

An anomalous return is the discrepancy between the actual return of a security and the predicted return. "Events" can sometimes cause abnormal returns. In statistics, correlation coefficients are frequently utilized in the field of investing. They are crucial in fields including performance assessment, quantitative trading, and portfolio composition.

Hence, The correlation coefficient between stock returns for two non-overlapping periods should be zero. If not, one could operate returns from one period to predict returns in later periods and make abnormal profits.

To learn more about abnormal stock returns refer to:

brainly.com/question/19721262

#SPJ4

You might be interested in
When preparing a statement of cash flows using the indirect method, each of the following should be classified as an operating c
pogonyaev

Answer:

C. Proceeds from the disposal of a long-term asset with no gain or loss.

Explanation:

Operating activities: it involves those transactions that after net income written impact the working capital. It would subtract the rise in current assets and a reduction in current liabilities, while adding the decline in current assets and an increase in current liabilities.  

It would adjust the changes in working capital. In addition, the depreciation expense adds to the net revenue. And the loss on asset sales is added, while the gain on asset sales is deducted

8 0
4 years ago
Rita Gonzales won the $53 million lottery. She is to receive $2.2 million a year for the next 20 years plus an additional lump s
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

PV= $17,365,776.86

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cf= 2,200,000

Number of years= 20

Discount rate= 12%

Additional lump sum= 9,000,000

First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual cash flow

FV= {2,200,000*[(1.12^20) - 1]} / 0.12 + 9,000,000

FV= $167,515,373.4

Now, the present value:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 167,515,373.4/1.12^20

PV= $17,365,776.86

7 0
4 years ago
The strategy in which a company sells its exports to another country at a lower price than it sells the same product in its dome
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

Dumping

Explanation:

Dumping is protectionist strategy in which a company sells its exports to another country at a lower price than it sells the same product in its domestic market. Dumping is usually associated with a substantial volume of export of a product, it often endangers the financial viability of the product's manufacturer or producer in the importing nation.

6 0
3 years ago
When the price of gasoline rose to $4 per gallon in the summer of 2008, many people were outraged at how gas companies were "pri
rjkz [21]

Answer:

22222222222222222222222222222

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A producer of felt-tip pens has received a forecast of demand of 41,000 pens for the coming month from its marketing department.
VladimirAG [237]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. The break even quantity is

= Fixed cost ÷ (selling price per unit - variable cost per unit)

= $26,000 ÷ ($1 - 0.35)

= $26,000 ÷ 0.65

= 40,000

b. The price is

Let us assume the price per pen  be x

As we know that

Profit = Revenue - costs

$16,000 = (x)(41,000) - $26,000 - .35(41,000)

$16,000 = 41,000x - 40,350

$56,350 = 41,000x

x = $1.37

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Journalize all transactions for Jo Jo Music. Round all amounts to the nearest dollar. (For notes stated in days, use a 360-day y
    5·1 answer
  • A stock has a beta of 1.3 and an expected return of 12.8 percent. a risk-free asset currently earns 4.3 percent.
    9·1 answer
  • What is the key difference between command and market economies?
    8·1 answer
  • McNulty, Inc., produces desks and chairs. A new CFO has just been hired and announces a new policy that if a product cannot earn
    10·1 answer
  • Economists look at any situation in terms of its component parts: the people making decisions, the environment in which they're
    10·1 answer
  • For Bonita Sports Corporation, year-end plan assets were $4,250,000. At the beginning of the year, plan assets were $3,974,000.
    8·1 answer
  • Universal Travel Inc. borrowed $500,000 on November 1, 2013, and signed a 12-month note bearing interest at 6%. Interest is paya
    10·1 answer
  • Which loan type requires you to make loan payments while you’re attending school?
    8·2 answers
  • Statement 1: The onset of 5% inflation means that your receipt of a $100 interest payment allows you to purchase only $95 worth
    11·1 answer
  • You expect the price of a commodity to behave as follows over the next 12 months:
    10·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!