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Tresset [83]
2 years ago
8

Two of the major advantages of a pass-through entity are that investors can _______ and _______. (choose two correct answers)

Business
1 answer:
prisoha [69]2 years ago
7 0

Two of the major advantages of a pass-through entity are that investors can assume the tax deductions and losses earnings.

An option to lower taxable income is a tax deduction. A standard deduction is a single, predetermined deduction. Higher-income taxpayers frequently have considerable deductible expenses, such as state and local taxes paid, mortgage interest, and charitable contributions, which is why itemized deductions are popular.

Any expense that is deemed "ordinary, necessary, and reasonable" and aids in the revenue generation of a firm is tax deductible. Usually, it is subtracted from the business's income before taxes.

Learn more about tax deduction here

brainly.com/question/17395659

#SPJ4

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The president of the company you work for has asked you to evaluate the proposed acquisition of a new chromatograph for the firm
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

Part A)

Year 0 net cash flow would comprise of basic price, modification cost and requirement for net working capital. The formula for cash flow in Year 0 would be:

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -Basic Price - Modification Cost - NWC

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get,

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -190,000 - 47,500 - 9,500 = -$247,000

______________________

Part B:

Year 1, 2 and 3 would required adjustment for depreciation charges (under MACRS) against expected savings. The depreciation rates for 3 year class asset would be 33%, 45% and 15% for Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3 respectively.

Depreciation would be calculated on the equipment's basic price and modification cost.

The formula that can be used to calculate the net operating cash flow would be:

Net Operating Cash Flow = (Sales - Depreciation)*(1-Tax Rate) + Depreciation

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get, the table in the attached file

Important Information:

Depreciation (Year 1) = (190,000 + 47,500)*33% = $78,375

Depreciation (Year 2) = (190,000 + 47,500)*45% = $106,875

Depreciation (Year 3) = (190,000 + 47,500)*15% = $35,625

______________________

Part C:

Additional non operating cash flow would consist of after-tax salvage value and return of net working capital. Relevant formulas are:

Additional Non Operating Cash Flow = After Tax Salvage Value + Return of Net Working Capital

After Tax Salvage Value = Sales Value +/- Tax on Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset

Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset = Sales Value - Book Value

Book Value = (Basic Price + Modification Cost)*(1-(33%+45%+15%))

______________

Using the above mentioned formulas, we get,

Book Value = (190000 + 47500)*(1-(33%+45%+15%)) = $16,625

Gain on Sale of Equipment = 66,500 - 16,625 = $49,875

Tax on Gain = $49,875*30% = $14,962.50

After Tax Salvage Value = 66,500 - 14,962.50 = $51,537.50

_____________________

Additional (Non Operating) Cash Flow = $51,537.50 + $9,500 = $61,037.50 or $61,038

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not considered a legitimate expense of a partnership? a Interest paid to partners based on the amount
never [62]

Answer:

a Interest paid to partners based on the amount of invested capital.

Explanation:

A partnership is formed between two parties that agree to go into a venture for mutual gain. The parties share ownership of the business entity and as such are entitled to profit from their equity holdings.

Interest paid based on invested capital is considered a distribution of profit by the business and not an expense. This is similar to sharing profit to shareholders in a company.

Legitimate expenses include: cost of sales, staff cost, administrative costs, advertising costs, and professional expenses like hiring an accountant.

8 0
3 years ago
If P denotes the price of goods and services measured in terms of money, then:________.
Margaret [11]
The answer is A for sure
8 0
3 years ago
Answer this question based on the following information about a company: Revenues, $20 million; costs, $15 million; assets, $30
andrezito [222]

Answer:

$60,000,000

Explanation:

Market value is simply defined as the price an asset would fetch in the marketplace, or the value that the investment community gives to a particular equity or business.

Formula for market value is given as

Company's Share × Current Market price per share.

Therefore, given that

Numbet of shares = 3,000,000

Price of share = $20

Then, MV = 3,000,000 × 20

= $60,000,000

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is not a broad, cost classification category typically used in activity-based costing? Batch-level. Facil
crimeas [40]

Answer:

Management Level

Explanation:

A cost allocation method is not an activity based costing typically.

Interviews with management that have adequate knowledge and the cost classification are usually done at management level

4 0
3 years ago
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