Answer: Option D
Explanation: In simple words, normal cash flows refers to those cash flows which have one initial investment at the beginning followed by a stream of inflows while in case of non normal cash flows the stream keeps changing from inflows to outflows.
Normal cash flows have only one IRR as there can only be single rate at which NPV will be zero while in case of Non normal there are two IRR due to uneven stream.
Thus, we can conclude that the correct option is D.
Answer:
he or she can potentially lose 100% of the principal amount due to a stock price decline.
Explanation:
The elderly investor is trying to invest in bluchip stocks that have high returns in order to recoup losses from his previous investment.
Generally the higher the returns on an investment the higher the risk of that investment. Investors are likely to lose their capital in higher yield investments.
A reverse convertible note is a product that is the obligation of the issuing bank and not the corporation. So if price falls below the knock in price, customer will only receive the stock at maturity and not at par. The stocks received could be worthless and investor could loose all his principal.
in accrual basis accounting, revenue is recorded when the seller's product is shipped or service is provided.
Revenue is the money made from regular business operations and is calculated by multiplying the average sales price by the quantity of units sold. In order to calculate net income, costs must be deducted from the top line (or gross income) figure. On the income statement, revenue is also known as sales.
Even though the cash for the transaction has not yet been exchanged, accruals are earnings or expenses that have an influence on a company's net income on the income statement. Due to the non-cash assets and liabilities they involve, accruals also have an impact on the balance sheet.
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Answer:
7.8%
Explanation:
For computing the coupon rate first we have to determine the PMT by using the PMT formula which is shown in the attachment below:
Given that,
Present value = $969
Future value or Face value = $1,000
RATE =8.1%
NPER = 17 years
The formula is shown below:
= PMT(RATE;NPER;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula, the PMT is $77.58
Now the coupon rate is
= $77.58 ÷ $1,000
= 7.8%
