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Otrada [13]
2 years ago
14

How are bonds payable usually classified on the balance sheet?

Business
1 answer:
earnstyle [38]2 years ago
7 0

Bonds payable that are <u>long-term obligations</u> are typically recorded on the balance sheet.

<h3><u>How do long-term liabilities work?</u></h3>

Long-term liabilities are debts owed by a business that won't be paid off for at least a year. To give a clearer picture of a company's present liquidity and its capacity to meet its obligations as they come due, the current part of long-term debt is broken out separately from other debt.

Long-term liabilities are also referred to as noncurrent liabilities or long-term debt. The balance sheet's part that may include debentures, loans, deferred tax liabilities, and pension obligations is where long-term liabilities are stated following more immediate liabilities.

Liabilities that are greater than one year in duration or that are not due within the next 12 months are referred to as long-term liabilities. The time it takes a business to convert its inventory into cash is known as its operational cycle.

Learn more about long-term liabilities  with the help of the given link:

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Suppose the price of apples doubles to $3.00 between year 1 and year 2 but that nothing else in the economy changes Instructions
Bond [772]

Answer:

1. Suppose Quantity of Apple sold in year one & two =  100Kg.

Price in year 1 = $1.50 per kg

Price in year 2 = $3.00 per kg

Nominal GDP 1 = Price * Quantity = 1.50*100 = $150

Nominal GDP year 2 = 3*100 = $300

Change in Nominal GDP = $150

Percentage change in Nominal GDP = 100%

b. Real GDP of year 1 = Nominal GDP of year 1 = $150

Real GDP of year 2 = 1.50*100 = $150

Change in Real GDP = 0%

2. Quantity of Bread = 100 units price = $ 1 per unit, year 2 price = $ 2 per units

a. Nominal GDP year 1 = 1*100+1.5*100 = $250

Nominal GDP year 2 = 2*100+3*100 = $500

Percentage change in Nominal GDP = 500-250/500 * 100 = 100%

b. Real GDP year 1 = $250

Real GDP year 2 = 1*100 + 1.5*100 = $250

Percentage change in Real GDP = 0%

6 0
3 years ago
Mike has an insurance policy that pays 90% of the replacement cost of personal property damaged in a fire. A fire destroyed a st
podryga [215]

Answer:

Explanation:

Mike insurance company will pay = 0.9 of 400 = $ 360

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The use of effective contracts with penalties could reduce which form of supply chain risk?
Evgen [1.6K]

The use of effective contracts with penalties could reduce the following forms of supply chain risks:

  • Distribution
  • Logistic delays or damages
  • Supplier failure to deliver

<h3>What are supply chain risks?</h3>

Supply chain risk management is "the implementation of strategies to manage routine and non-routine risks in the supply chain to reduce vulnerability and ensure continuity based on ongoing risk assessment".

<h3>What are effective contracts?</h3>

Most contracts only need to contain two elements to be legally effective: the parties must agree (after one party has made an offer and the other has accepted it).

Something of value, such as money, services or goods (or a promise to exchange such goods) must be exchanged for something else of value.

Learn more about Effective Contracts:
brainly.com/question/984979

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Full Question

The use of effective contracts with penalties could reduce which form of supply chain​ risk?

A. Distribution

B. Logistic delays or damages

C. Supplier failure to deliver

D. All of the above Question:

7 0
1 year ago
Data that is based on natural language, such as social media posts, comments, e-mail messages and so
konstantin123 [22]
A. Semi Structure Data
8 0
3 years ago
You are considering two investment alternatives. The first is a stock that pays quarterly dividends of $0.32 per share and is tr
MrMuchimi

Answer:

The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.

Explanation:

<u>For First stock </u>

Total dividend from first stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.32 * 2 = $0.64

HPR of first stock = (Total dividend from first stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($0.64 + ($31.72 - $27.85)) / $27.85 = 0.1619, or 16.19%

Annualized holding period return of first stock = HPR of first stock * Number 6 months in a year = 16.19% * 2 = 32.38%

<u>For Second stock </u>

Total dividend from second stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.67 * 4 = $2.68

Since you expect to sell the stock in one year, we have:

Annualized holding period return of second stock = The 1-year HPR for the second stock = (Total dividend from second stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($2.68+ ($36.79 - $34.98)) / $34.98 = 0.1284, or 12.84%

Since the Annualized holding period return of first stock of 32.38% is higher than the Annualized holding period return of second stock of 12.84%. the first stock will provide the better annualized holding period return.

The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.

6 0
3 years ago
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