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svetoff [14.1K]
2 years ago
12

unless u.s. legislatures give courts and prison administrators more leeway to interchange prison sentences with community senten

ces, states will continue to find themselves in economic crises as they attempt to provide for the of the inmate population projected to be elderly by the year 2030.
Business
1 answer:
Bas_tet [7]2 years ago
7 0

Unless u.s. legislatures give courts and prison administrators more leeway to interchange prison sentences with community sentences, states will continue to find themselves in economic crises as they attempt to provide for the 33% of the inmate population projected to be elderly by the year 2030.

<h3>What is an economic crisis in your own words?</h3>
  • The term "economic crisis" refers to a situation where a country's economy has a sudden decline in strength, typically caused by a financial crisis. The current economic situation could manifest as stagflation, a recession, or an economic depression.
  • Asset values endure a sharp decrease in value during a financial crisis, firms and individuals cannot pay their loans, and financial institutions face a liquidity shortage.
  • An economic crisis occurs when a country has a sudden decline as a result of a financial crisis, whereas a financial crisis is a situation in which the values of financial assets in an economy collapse rapidly.
  • A debt crisis can result in significant losses for domestic and foreign banks, potentially jeopardizing the viability of financial systems both in the crisis-hit nation and beyond. This may hinder economic expansion and wreak havoc on international financial markets.

Unless u.s. legislatures give courts and prison administrators more leeway to interchange prison sentences with community sentences, states will continue to find themselves in economic crises as they attempt to provide for the 33% of the inmate population projected to be elderly by the year 2030.

To learn more about economic crises, refer to:

brainly.com/question/307213

#SPJ4

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Should i put this in my writings
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

omg that would be awesome tbh

6 0
3 years ago
The Ring Division of A1d-Y6z Company reported the following information for May: selling price per unit .................... $35
Travka [436]

Answer:

52,000 units

Explanation:

Selling price = $35*40,000 = $1,400,000

Variable cost = $12 * 40,000 = $480,000

Contribution margin = $1,400,000 - $480,000 = $920,000

Fixed cost = Residual income + Contribution

Fixed cost = $920,000 - $229,600

Fixed cost = $690,400

Sales to earn residual income = [Fixed cost + Desired profit] / Contribution per unit

Sales to earn residual income = [$690,400 + $505,600] / $35 - $12

Sales to earn residual income = $1,196,000 / $23

Sales to earn residual income = 52,000 units

7 0
3 years ago
Which answer best explains why profit per hour decreases when more than ten beanbags per hour are produced?.
mote1985 [20]

n production, the profit per hour decreases when more than ten beanbags per hour are produced because the marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue.

<h3>What entails the marginal cost and revenue?</h3>

Normally, when marginal cost is greater, the company should raise production levels to improve efficiency and generate more profit overall.

Hence, as a result of the marginal cost greater than marginal revenue, the profit per hour will decreases when more than ten beanbags per hour are produced.

Read more about marginal cost

<em>brainly.com/question/16615264</em>

4 0
2 years ago
The following present value factors are provided for use in this problem: Norman Co. wants to purchase a machine for $40,000 but
koban [17]

Answer:

$2,685

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the machine's net present value

NET PRESENT VALUE

Year Cash flow*Discount factor at 8% =Discounted Cash flows

0 $ -40,000*1= $-40,000

1 $ 12,000*0.9259= $11,111

2 $12,000*0.8573=$10,289

3 $ 12,000* 0.7938=$9,526

4 $16,000*0.7350=$11,760

NET PRESENT VALUE $2,685

($-40,000+$11,111+$10,289+$9,526+$11,760)

Therefore the machine's net present value is $2,685

5 0
3 years ago
For 1-year SPX options, we observe that the 25-delta put implied volatility is at 45%, the 50-delta call implied volatility is a
Lerok [7]

Answer:

Option B, positively skewed, is the right answer.

Explanation:

A positive-skewed distribution generally has a long right or positive tail. The positive-skew distributions are also known as the Right-skewed distribution. The main reason behind calling this a positive-skew is that this skew has a long tail in the positive direction on the number line.

In the given question, positively-skewed implies to one-year return risk-neutral distribution, as the delta put raises, the volatility decreases but not in the same proportion. In such a condition, the median will be less than the mean. Therefore, it will be Right-Skewed or Positively Skewed Distribution.

8 0
3 years ago
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