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Olin [163]
2 years ago
8

baird purchased a landlocked tract from carr on the condition that carr grant baird an easement across carr's property to a road

. proper papers were drawn, but the easement was never recorded. later, baird sold the property to dole but failed to make mention of the easement. does dole hold a valid easement across carr's property? select one: a. no, because the original easement was never recorded b. no, because the second transfer failed to specifically mention the easement c. yes, because the easement runs with the land, not the individual d. yes, because baird held the servient estate and carr held the dominant estate question 82 answer saved points out of 1.00 not flaggedflag question question text when would real estate prices likely be hi
Business
1 answer:
gtnhenbr [62]2 years ago
5 0

Dole has a legal right of way through Carr's property because the easement follows the land and not the owner.

The Indian Easements Act of 1882's Section 4 defines the term "easement." According to Section 4's guidelines, an easement right is a privilege that a landowner or occupier has over another piece of property that is not his own and that is intended to allow for the beneficial use of the property. Because an occupier or owner cannot completely enjoy his own property without this privilege, it is allowed. It also includes the right to take action or continue to take action in relation to or with regard to some other land, other than his own, for the pleasure of his own land.

To learn more about Easement across property here

brainly.com/question/14100294

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