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ollegr [7]
2 years ago
9

Explain how banks have transformed their commercial lending business from asset transformation to brokerage services

Business
1 answer:
faltersainse [42]2 years ago
6 0

Asset transformation by financial intermediaries is the purchase of a primary asset or securities and their transformation into other assets in terms of risk and maturity.

A type of transformation where banks use deposits (mobilized funds) to generate income by pooling deposits to provide loans. More precisely, asset transformation is the process of converting bank liabilities (deposits) into bank assets (loans). Deposits are inherently subject to withdrawal by customers (depositors) at any time or as set out in the deposit contract/agreement. Loans are bank assets because they represent money that the bank lends and expects to receive back in the form of repayment of principal and interest. As such, banks perform asset transformation by providing long-term and short-term loans, with the interest differential being their transformation returns. Banks and other financial institutions usually perform asset transformation by offering their customers various financial products on both sides of the balance sheet, such as deposits, investment and loan products, etc.

Learn more about risk and maturity.

brainly.com/question/20715710

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Consider the following two mutually exclusive projects: Year Cash Flow (A) Cash Flow (B) 0 –$218,917 –$16,419 1 25,700 5,985 2 5
Kryger [21]

Answer:

The IRR (in %) for Project A is 31%.

Explanation:

Let IRR be x%

At IRR, present value of inflows = present value of outflows.  

218917 = 25700/1.0x + 53000/1.0x^2 + 58000/1.0x^3 + 420,000/1.0x^4

solving for x, we find:

x = 31%

Therefore, The IRR (in %) for Project A is 31%.

5 0
3 years ago
A marketing plan refers to:_______
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

e. a road map for the marketing activities of an organization for a specified future time period, such as one year or five years.

Explanation:

A company's marketing plan generally involves specific periods of time, and usually last more than one year, but they aren't long enough to be considered as long term goals (more than 5 years). They follow the company's marketing strategies (long term goals), coordinate marketing activities and set short term goals.

5 0
3 years ago
Lancelot Manufacturing is a small textile manufacturer using machinehours as the single indirectcost rate to allocate manufactur
zhenek [66]

Answer:

$3,927

Explanation:

For the computation of bid price first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-

Manufacturing overhead rate = Overhead cost ÷ Machine hours

= 45,000 ÷ 100,000

= $0.45

Total manufacturing cost charged to the school

= 2,000 + 400 + (900 × 0.45)

= $2,805

Markup cost = $2,805 × 0.4

= $1,122

Bid price of job = Total manufacturing cost charged to school + Markup cost

= $2,805 + $1,122

= $3,927

7 0
4 years ago
The facts that money must withstand the wear and tear that comes from being used over and over again is a measure of its?
Lemur [1.5K]
I think the correct answer from the choices listed above is option C. <span>The facts that money must withstand the wear and tear that comes from being used over and over again is a measure of its durability. Hope this answers the question. Have a nice day.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Lundquist Company received a 60-day, 9% note for $28,000, dated July 23, from a customer on account. Required: a. Determine the
Alex

Answer:

a. Sep 10

b. $21,823

c. $21,500

Explanation:

a) Due date of the note

July 13 to 31 = 19 days

Aug 1 to 31 = 31 days

Sep 1 to Sep 10 = 10 days

due date is Sep 10

b) Maturity value of the note

$ 21500 + $ 21500*9%*60/360

= $ 21823

c) Journal entry

Cash debit $ 21823

interest recieved credit $323

Notes Receivable credit $ 21500

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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