Not in every aspect no but in some aspects yes if there are two answers then I would choose no it’s not
it is not a matter of inference
the reason for Tan believing that "nonstandard English is no less valid than standard English" is related to the fact that Standard English’ was considered as a form of the English language, universal or common in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, however, it was associated with social class and was seen by many as the language of the educated. On the contrary, speakers from lower classes in the past and today, tend to use nonstandard dialect features because they are more likely to have left education earlier, have non-professional jobs and have no need to associate themselves with a ‘prestige’ way of speaking.
Any multiple choice answers
Answer:
Mariam said She missed her friend
Answer:
hi
Explanation:
:) hello there how are you
