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Alex787 [66]
2 years ago
13

The equation x 2y = 16 is in standard form. what is the slope of the line? â€""2 â€""1 â€""0.5 0.5

Mathematics
1 answer:
Savatey [412]2 years ago
3 0

By rewriting the given line, we can see that the slope is equal to -1/2 or -0.5

<h3>How to get the slope of the given line?</h3>

Remember that a line is:

y = a*x + b

Where a is the slope and b is the y-intercept of the line, which is the point where the line intersects the y-axis.

Then, we can rewrite our equation:

x + 2y = 16

to:

2y = 16 - x

y = (16 - x)/2

y = (-1/2)*x + 8

Comparing with the general line equation, we can see that the slope is -1/2.

If you want to learn more about linaer equations:

brainly.com/question/1884491

#SPJ4

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6 0
3 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help w/ this thx
andrew-mc [135]
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7 0
2 years ago
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What is m∠1? Help me, please
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

119

Step-by-step explanation:

By using exterior angle theorem, we know that 31+angle 1 =150. therefore angle 1=119. Exterior angle theorem is where an angle exterior of an angle in the triangle addus up to 180 degreees, we also know the angles in a triangle sum to 180 degrees. Both sides have a common angle. If we subract it from the equation, we get what is said above.

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2 years ago
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