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liq [111]
1 year ago
12

Rest causes the value of money received today to be greater than the value of that same amount of money received in the future i

s referred?
Business
1 answer:
Degger [83]1 year ago
8 0

The concept that interest causes the value of money received today to be greater than the value of that same amount of money received in the future is referred to as the Time Value of Money.

What is Time Value of Money?

A sum of money is worth more now than it will be at a later time due to its potential for profits in the interim, according to the temporal value of money (TVM) theory. This is a foundational idea in finance. Money that is physically in your possession is worth more than money that will be paid to you in the future. Another name for the time value of money is present discounted value. According to the concept of time value of money, a certain amount of money is worth more right now than it will be in the future. This is so because investment is the only way to make money grow. Any delay in an investment is a missed chance.

To learn more about Time Value of Money, visit:

brainly.com/question/2632491

#SPJ4

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Jodi is retiring at the age of 65. When she retires, she estimates that she will need a monthly income for 25 years. If Jodi sta
sergejj [24]

Monthly income refers to the gross countable income received or projected to be received during the subsequent month.

<h3>Interest compounded monthly</h3>

Given Information:

  • Principal = 328,133.32
  • Interest rate = 6.2%, compounded monthly
  • Term = 25 years

A = P (1 + r/n)^nt

A = 328,133.32 (1 + 6.2%/12)^12*25

A = 328,133.32 (1 + 0.0052)^300

A = 328,133.32 (1.0052)^300

A = 328,133.32 (4.74)

A = 1,555,351.94  Total value after 25 years.

=1,555,351.94 / 300 months = 5,184.51 per month.

Learn more about monthly income, refer to the link:

brainly.com/question/24685812

4 0
2 years ago
Larry is a hard-working college freshman. One Saturday, he decides to work nonstop until he has answered 200 practice problems f
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

  • The marginal gain from Larry's second hour of work is 60 problems
  • The marginal gain from Larry's fourth hour of work is 20 problems
  • The best combination is 1 hour of working problems + 3 hours of reading

Explanation:

To get the <em><u>marginal gain</u></em> we subtract from the latest hour, in this case the second hour (140), the production from the previous hour (80). 140-80=60. <em>It's always the same, the latest minus the previous one.</em>

So let's do the same for the fourth hour:

Noon................200 problems

minus

11:00 AM..........180 problems

200-180= 20 problems

Now to know how many hours he should spend working on problems and reading, let's compare:

An hour of reading equals to 70 problems made; (because working on 70 problems raises a student’s exam score by about the same amount as reading the textbook for 1 hour).

hours of working problems         problems solved

0............................................................0

1.............................................................80

2............................................................140

3............................................................180

hours reading                    problems equivalent to hours read

4...............................................(4*70)=280

3...............................................(3*70)=210

2...............................................(2*70)=140

1................................................(1*70)=70

finally let's add up the two combinations (0 and 4, 1 and 3, 2 and 2, 3 and 1)

0 and 4_______________0+280= 280

1 and 3________________80+210=290

2 and 2_______________140+140=280

3 and 1________________180+70=250

<em>And the best combination is 1 hour of working problems + 3 hours of reading=</em><em>290</em>

3 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2012, Piper Co., purchased a machine (its only depreciable asset) for $600,000. The machine has a five-year life,
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

Piper should report $308,000 as net income for the year . Option C

Explanation:

Accumulated Depreciation till 2014 = [$600,000×(5+4+3)] ÷ 15 = $ 480,000

Book Value at beginning 2015 = $600,000 - $480,000 = $120,000

Depreciation Expense in 2015 = $120,000 ÷ 2 = $60,000

Net Income before depreciation & taxes = $ 500,000

Depreciation = $ 60,000

Electronic Benefits Transfer = Net Income before depreciation & taxes - Depreciation

= $ 500,000  - $ 60,000  

=$ 440000

Tax Expenses = $440,000 × 30% = $132,000

Net Income =$ 308,000

4 0
3 years ago
Alex Karev has taken out a ​$ loan with an annual rate of percent compounded monthly to pay off hospital bills from his wife​ Iz
Tom [10]

Answer:

the question is incomplete, so I looked for a similar one:

<em>Alex Karev has taken out a ​$180,000 loan with an annual rate of 11% compounded monthly to pay off hospital bills from his wife​ Izzy's illness. If the most Alex can afford to pay is ​$3,500 per​ month, how long will it take to pay off the​ loan? How long will it take for him to pay off the loan if he can pay $4,000 per​ month?</em>

PVIFA = $180,000 / $3,500 = 51.42857

PVIFA = [1 - 1/(1 + i)ⁿ ] / i = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ] / 0.11/12

51.42857 x 0.11/12 = 1 - 1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ

0.47143 = 1 - 1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ

1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ = 1 - 0.47143 = 0.52857

1 / 0.52857 = (1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ

1.89189 = 1.009167ⁿ

n = log 1.89189 / log 1.009167 = 0.2769 / 0.003963 = 69.87

n = 69.87 months

PVIFA = $180,000 / $4,000 = 45

PVIFA = [1 - 1/(1 + i)ⁿ ] / i = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ] / 0.11/12

45 x 0.11/12 = 1 - 1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ

0.4125 = 1 - 1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ

1/(1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ = 1 - 0.4125 = 0.5875

1 / 0.5875 = (1 + 0.11/12)ⁿ

1.70213 = 1.009167ⁿ

n = log 1.70213 / log 1.009167 = 0.23099 / 0.003963 = 58.29

n = 58.29 months

4 0
3 years ago
The shareholders need to earn 20%. The firm can borrow at 5%. The risk free rate is 2%. The tax rate is 40%. Find the weighted a
lbvjy [14]

Answer:

11.5%

Explanation:

The computation of the weighted average cost of capital is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

= (0.50 × 5%) × ( 1 - 40%) +  (0.50 × 20%)

= 1.5% + 10%

= 11.5%

Basically we multiplied the weightage of capital structure with its cost so that the weighted average cost of capital could come

3 0
4 years ago
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