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liq [111]
1 year ago
12

Rest causes the value of money received today to be greater than the value of that same amount of money received in the future i

s referred?
Business
1 answer:
Degger [83]1 year ago
8 0

The concept that interest causes the value of money received today to be greater than the value of that same amount of money received in the future is referred to as the Time Value of Money.

What is Time Value of Money?

A sum of money is worth more now than it will be at a later time due to its potential for profits in the interim, according to the temporal value of money (TVM) theory. This is a foundational idea in finance. Money that is physically in your possession is worth more than money that will be paid to you in the future. Another name for the time value of money is present discounted value. According to the concept of time value of money, a certain amount of money is worth more right now than it will be in the future. This is so because investment is the only way to make money grow. Any delay in an investment is a missed chance.

To learn more about Time Value of Money, visit:

brainly.com/question/2632491

#SPJ4

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Biodegradable coconut fiber logs are made of coconut fibers surrounded by netting. Placed along the shoreline of a lake, they he
Lorico [155]

Answer:

These logs are an example of ecosystem and regulation support.

Explanation:

"Regulating services are defined as the benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes such as climate regulation, natural hazard regulation, water purification and waste management, pollination or pest control."

Reference: Biodiversity Information System for Europe. “Ecosystem Services.” Ecosystem Services - Biodiversity Information System for Europe, 2019

8 0
3 years ago
"Which statements are TRUE about IO tranches? I When interest rates rise, the price of the tranche falls II When interest rates
horrorfan [7]

The available options are:

A. I and III

B. I and IV

C. II and III

D. II and IV

Answer:

C. II and III

Explanation:

IO tranche which is an acronym for Interest Only tranche is defined as a form of tranche which earns interest only from a secured loan which is derived from Principal Only tranche.

However, Interest Only tranche is quite different from a typical bond, simply because when market interest rate increases the rate of prepayment decreases, which in turn makes the rate of maturity to be longer. Thereby when interest rates increase, prices increase, and vice versa.

Hence the true statements are:

II When interest rates rise, the price of the tranche rises

III When interest rates fall, the price of the tranche falls

5 0
3 years ago
The following information is available for Cheyenne Corp..
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

(a) Earnings per share for 2022 and 2021 for Cheyenne are as follows:

Earnings per share for 2002 = $1.21

Earnings per share for 2001 = $1.10

(b) The current ratio and debt to assets ratio for each year are as follows:

Current ratio for 2002 = 2.40

Current ratio for 2001 = 1.25

Debt to assets ratio for 2002 = 29%

Debt to assets ratio for 2001 = 41%

(c) Free cash flow for each year are as follows:

Free cash flow for 2002 = $63,000

Free cash flow for 2001 = $44,000

Explanation:

(a) Compute earnings per share for 2022 and 2021 for Cheyenne. (Round Earnings per share to 2 decimal places, e.g. $2.78.)

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Earnings per share = (Net income - Preferred dividends) / Average shares outstanding ..................... (1)

Where;

Average common shares outstanding = (Common shares outstanding at beginning of year + Common shares outstanding at end of year) / 2

Using equation (1), we have:

Earnings per share for 2002 = (81,700 - 9,705) / ((42,000 + 77,000) / 2) = $1.21

Earnings per share for 2001 = (51,615 - 9,705) / ((31,700 + 44,500) / 2) = $1.10

(b) Compute the current ratio and debt to assets ratio for each year. (Round ratio answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25 and percentage answers to 0 decimal places, e.g. 15%.)

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Current ratio = Current assets / Current liabilities ................... (2)

Debt to assets ratio = (Total liabilities / Total assets) * 100 .............. (3)

Using equation (2), we have:

Current ratio for 2002 = 56,880 / 23,700 = 2.40

Current ratio for 2001 = 39,625 / 31,700 = 1.25

Using equation (3), we have:

Debt to assets ratio for 2002 = (70,180 / 242,000) * 100 = 29%

Debt to assets ratio for 2001 = (84,870 / 207,000) * 100 = 41%

(c) Compute free cash flow for each year.

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Free cash flow = Net cash provided by operating activities - Expenditures on property, plant, and equipment .................(4)

Using equation (4), we have:

Free cash flow for 2002 = $91,700 - $28,700 = $63,000

Free cash flow for 2001 = $57,700 - $13,700 = $44,000

7 0
3 years ago
Miguel was asked to improve his company's report format. Many employees and clients found the reports hard
VLD [36.1K]

In order to increase the readability, Miguel can use:

  • Shorter lines.
  • Columns.
  • Boxes.

<h3>Improving readability </h3>

Miguel can use shorter lines so that the chances of people getting lost when reading a sentence is reduced. He can also present the information in different columns for more organization.

Another way to organize the information can be in boxes. These can explain concepts away from the text so that the report is less cluttered.

In conclusion, there are several ways to increase readability.

Find out more on readability at brainly.com/question/3923453.

7 0
2 years ago
You are evaluating an investment that will provide the following cash flows at the end of each of the following years: year 1, $
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

$37,680.95

Explanation:

The maximum i would be willing to pay is the present value of the cash flows

Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows

Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

Cash flow in year 1 = $12,500

Cash flow in year 2 = $10,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $7,500

Cash flow in year 4 = $5,000

Cash flow in year 5 = $2,500

Cash flow in year 6 = 0

Cash flow in year 7   $12,500

I = 9%

PV = $37,680.95

To find the PV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

3 0
3 years ago
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