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zaharov [31]
1 year ago
12

Which of the following accurately describes a difference between the development of feudalism in Japan and in Europe?

History
2 answers:
densk [106]1 year ago
5 0

The difference that existed between the Feudalism in Europe and Japan is that  There was no exchange of loyalty for protection in Japan.

<h3>What is feudalism?</h3>

This is the term that is used to refer to the ancient practice where the noble men in the society would have to pay the people of the lower ranks to give their services to them. The services were often based on the need for protection.

Hence we can say that The difference that existed between the Feudalism in Europe and Japan is that  There was no exchange of loyalty for protection in Japan.

Read more on feudalism here: brainly.com/question/4141227

#SPJ1

lesantik [10]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

A. The initial source of instability was internal to Japan and outside invaders in Europe.

Explanation:

Belive me I took the test

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<span>  </span>
After the Versailles Treaty<span>, </span>Hitler<span> and the Nazis assumed control of Germany by calling for a heroic mass effort to restore past glory allied to the humiliating situation that treaty had put Germany and its people. After the First World War, the German economy was too bad also due to the war fines that were imposed by the victorious nations and also due to the Great Depression.</span>

<span>As referred, the appeasement policy was one of the major causes for the war. The British and French politicians followed a policy that gave Hitler the conditions to reinforce his position within European countries, but also gave the Germans time to rearm, being able to reoccupy Rhineland and after that launch the </span>Blitzkrieg<span> (</span>Lightning War) against major part of Europe.

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