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aniked [119]
2 years ago
8

If the standard quantity (SQ), actual quantity (AQ), standard price (SP), and actual price (AP) are 350 units, 400 units, $12, a

nd $13 respectively, then the total budget variance is
Business
1 answer:
masya89 [10]2 years ago
8 0

Then the total budget variance is $1000

The entire budget variance formulation: overall budget variance = (general amount x general rate) - (actual amount x actual fee). = (350 x $12) - (four hundred x $thirteen) = $4200 - $5200 = $one thousand adverse.

A budget variance is an accounting time period that describes times wherein actual prices are both better or lower than the usual or projected expenses. A destructive, or terrible, financial variance is indicative of a financial shortfall, which may additionally arise due to the fact sales pass over or expenses are available higher than expected.

A price range variance is a difference between the budgeted or baseline quantity of fee or sales and the real amount. The budget variance is favorable while the real sales are higher than the finances or while the actual expense is less than the finances.

Sensible budget variance analysis can assist finance teams to spot tendencies, capacity issues, opportunities, and threats in deliberate budgets so that you can make the modifications important to gain their objectives. A finances variance evaluation can also assist spot deviations among the centered vs. real budgets.

Learn more about budget variance here: brainly.com/question/25790358

#SPJ4

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Frieda Inc. is considering a capital expansion project. The initial investment of undertaking this project is $105,500. This exp
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

WACC = 0.18 or 18%

Option b is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the cost of a firm's capital structure that can contain one or more of the following components, namely debt, preferred stock and common equity. The formula to calculate the WACC is as follows,

WACC = wD * rD * (1-tax rate)  +  wP * rP  +  wE * rE

Where,

  • w represents the weight of each component
  • D, P and E represents debt, preferred stock and common equity respectively
  • r represents the cost of each component
  • rD * (1-tax rate) represents the after tax cost of debt

WACC = 0.2 * 0.16   +   0.8 * 0.185

WACC = 0.18 or 18%

7 0
3 years ago
Technological improvements have made it possible to do a restaurant’s food cost percentage in about _____________ of the time it
EleoNora [17]

Answer: One-third

Explanation:

The impact of technology in our everyday life cannot be understated. Technology has made life easier by simplifying our work lives and personal lives. In the restaurant industry, technological terms such as artificial intelligence, mobile apps, smart devices etc are now common in the industry.

Technology helps in making work easier. This can be noticeable in knowing the food cost percentage of a restaurant. Through technology, the food cost percentage of a restaurant can now be known in one third of the time used before technology came into place.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the demand for corn increases while at the same time the supply of corn also increases. As a result, the equilibrium pri
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

Rise, fall, or remain unchanged and equilibrium quantity of corn will increase.

Explanation:

In this case, the equilibrium price of corn might RISE, FALL, or NOT CHANGE while the equilibrium quantity of corn increases.

4 0
4 years ago
The of accounts receivable method uses several percentages to estimate the allowance.
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

<em>The </em><u>aging</u><em> of accounts receivable method uses several percentages to estimate the allowance.</em>

Explanation:

An account of receivable aging report lists customer account balances by length of time outstanding.

6 0
2 years ago
Byron Corporation forecasts that its income will be $21,000 next year. The firm pays out 30 percent of earnings as dividends to
noname [10]

Answer:

RE break point = $24500

Explanation:

21,000 net income

30% OF Earnings as dividends

21,000 x 30% = 6,300 dividends

Retained Earnings (assuming no previous beginning value)

21,000 - 6,300 = 14,700

RE break point = 14,700/0.6 = 24500

What does the $24,500 mean?

This mean that the company can raise financing for this ammount without changing their capital structure (60% equity 40% debt)

If the company wants to finance for more, it will need to raise new shares or chance their capital structure, and therefore the WACC will change

8 0
3 years ago
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