Answer:
B. Investment Y has a higher present value.
Explanation:
The cash inflows are given in the question for Investment X and Investment Y
Plus we know that the cash inflows and the number of years has an indirect relation
That means if the cash flows are the same for year 1 and 2 and in year 3 and year 4 so year 1 and year 2 present value would be higher as compared with the last year present value
Since in the question Investment Y has higher cash inflows in starting year but in Investment X has higher cash inflows in last year that interprets Investment Y has a higher present value
Answer:
Explanation:
In order to find the highest amount david can pay or in other words the present value of the investment we would have to discount the cash flows
3000/1.08+3000/1.08^2+3000/1.08^3+3000/1.08^4+3000/1.08^5=11,978
Answer:
Has an opportunity cost
- Having a "lazy afternoon" VS Working an 8 hour shift VS
- Cooking dinner VS Eating out
- Reading you favorite book VS Catching up with an old friend
Explanation:
Opportunity costs refer to the extra costs or benefits lost associated with choosing one activity or investment over another alternative. In other words, every activity that you carry out includes the opportunity cost of not doing something else. No matter what we do, we could be doing something else.
Answer:
c. $74,450
Explanation:
The computation of the Net present value is shown below
= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor + salvage value - initial investment
where,
The Initial investment is $120,000
All yearly cash flows would be
= Annual net operating cash inflows × PVIFA for 6 years at 14%
= $50,000 × 3.8887
= $194,435
Refer to the PVIFA table
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $194,435 - $120,000
= $74,435 approx
His unemployment is best classified as Structural.
