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Elenna [48]
3 years ago
8

SOMEONE PLEASE ANSWER AND I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST :))

Mathematics
2 answers:
seraphim [82]3 years ago
7 0
65.5% for sure . No thanks needed
UNO [17]3 years ago
6 0
Ok, so we know it costs $1.10 to make a pin, so the cost of making all 1000 pins must have been:
1.10 \times 1000 = 1100
We know that 35% of the pins, hence 350 pins, were given to charity (we assume this means donated for free), and so the company sold 650 pins.

60% of these we sold at $3 each;
0.60 \times 650 = 390
So 390 pins sold at $3 each comes to
390 \times 3 = 1170
So the company has already made $1170.

The other 40% of the 650 remaining pins (260 pins) were sold at $5 for 2. We assume from the question that they were only sold in pairs and were all sold, so we can essentially figure out that 130 pairs were sold at $5 each;
130 \times 5 = 650
So the company has sold the pins for $650 + $1170 = $1820

This means that the company has made
$1820 - $1100 = $720 as profit

So the percentage profit earned (profit/cost times 100%) would be
\frac{720}{1000}  \times 100 = 65.4545....
Which to one decimal place is 65.5% profit.

Hope this helped.



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