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ratelena [41]
1 year ago
12

because parts washers use cleaning solutions that eventually become spent, they must be disposed of properly.

SAT
1 answer:
kipiarov [429]1 year ago
8 0
Spent parts washer cleaning solutions are considered a special waste in Illinois because they may be a hazardous waste and are an industrial process waste. Spent solvents are almost always a hazardous waste.
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Helppppppppppppp !!!
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That is, It looks fresh :D
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2 years ago
In a marathon, 90% of runners managed to complete it and 30% of them were men. If 270 men completed it, how many total runners b
olasank [31]

Answer:

i dont know how to say it

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
In a study of helicopter usage and patient survival, among the 56,074 patients transported by helicopter, 235 of them
xxMikexx [17]

Using the hypergeometric distribution, it is found that the probability is 0.845 = 84.5%.

--------------------

  • The patients are chosen from the sample without replacement, which means that the hypergeometric distribution is used to solve this question.

Hypergeometric distribution:

The probability of x successes is given by:

P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • N is the size of the population.
  • n is the size of the sample.
  • k is the total number of desired outcomes.

Combination formula:

is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given as:

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

--------------------

  • 56074 patients, thus N = 56074
  • Sample of 40, thus, n = 40
  • 235 left against medical advice, thus, k = 235.

The probability that none left against medical advice is P(X = 0), so:

P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}

P(X = 0) = h(0,56074,40,235) = \frac{C_{235,0}*C_{55839,40}}{C_{56074,40}} = 0.845

The probability is 0.845 = 84.5%.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24008577

6 0
2 years ago
suppose you push a hockey puck of mass m across frictionless ice for a time 1.0 s, starting from rest, giving the puck speed v a
saul85 [17]

Answer: Twice the previous time would be taken to reach the same speed v with the puck of mass 2m.

Explanation:

Let a Force pushes the hockey puck of mass m.

Then acceleration, a= \frac{F}{m}a=mF

From the equation of motion,

\begin{gathered}\➪ v=u+at\\ v=0+\frac{F}{m}\Delta t\end{gathered}⇒v=u+atv=0+mFΔt ......(1)

In the second case, when mass is 2m, then acceleration,

a'=\frac{F}{2m}a′=2mF

and t' is the time taken.

The final speed is v,

\begin{gathered}\➪ v=0+ a't'\\ \➪ \frac {F}{m}\Delta t=\frac{F}{2m}t'\\ \➪ t'= 2\Delta t\end{gathered}⇒v=0+a′t′⇒mFΔt=2mFt′⇒t′=2Δt using equation (1)

Hence, it would take two times the previous amount of time to push the pluck of double mass.

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3 0
3 years ago
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