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viva [34]
2 years ago
7

Assuming the issuer does not default, can capital gains or losses be a component of the holding period return on a zero-coupon b

ond that is sold prior to maturity?
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]2 years ago
3 0

Yes, because the bond's yield to maturity may have changed.

Do zero coupon bonds have a yield?

Without accounting for any interest payments, zero-coupon bonds always demonstrate yields to maturity adequate to their normal rates of return. The yield to maturity for zero-coupon bonds is additionally known as the spot rate.

What is the difference between a zero-coupon bond and a coupon bond?

Regular bonds, which also are called coupon bonds, pay interest over the lifetime of the bond and also repay the principal at maturity. A zero-coupon bond doesn't pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, giving the investor a profit at maturity once they redeem the bond for its full face value.

Advantages Of Zero-Coupon Bond:

The Zero Coupon bonds eliminate the reinvestment risk. Zero-Coupon bonds don't let any periodic coupon payments, and hence a hard and fast interest on Zero Coupon bonds is guaranteed.

Learn more about zero coupon bond :

brainly.com/question/23549548

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A ______ company is one that does business in at least one country outside of its country of origin.
alexgriva [62]

Answer:Multi national company

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
In many cases, it is reasonable to refer to the ________________ as the price.
Sladkaya [172]

Most time, it is reasonable to refer to the opportunity cost as the price because it entails the benefit of the foregone good or service.

<h3>What is an opportunity cost?</h3>

It refers to a value of what is rejected in order to perform the chosen alternative, that is, the value one have to give up to buy what you want in terms of other goods or services.

Therefore, it is sometimes reasonable to refer to the opportunity cost as the price because it entails the benefit of the foregone good or service.

Read more about opportunity cost

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6 0
2 years ago
Jon is a cash-basis taxpayer and has adjusted gross income of $40,000 in 2018. During the year he incurred and paid the followin
fiasKO [112]

Complete Question:

Jon is a cash-basis taxpayer and has adjusted gross income of $40,000 in 2018. During the year he incurred and paid the following medical expenses.

Drugs and medicines prescribed by doctors $300

Health insurance premiums $750

Doctors' fees $2,250

Eyeglasses $75

How much medical expense can he deduct as itemized deduction?

Answer:

Jon

Medical expense that Jon can deduct as itemized deduction:

= $375

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Adjusted gross income = $40,000

Incurred medical expenses:

Drugs and medicines prescribed by doctors $300

Health insurance premiums $750

Doctors' fees $2,250

Eyeglasses $75

Total  = $3,375

Under Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA), the medical expenses which can be deducted as an itemized deduction on the federal income tax return are only to the extent that they exceed 7.5% of adjusted gross income (AGI).

7.5% of $40,000 = $3,000

Therefore, Jon can itemize deduction of $375 in medical expense.

7 0
3 years ago
In January, 2006, Findley Corporation purchased a patent for a new consumer product for $720,000. At the time of purchase, the p
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

b. $360,000.

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Purchase value of the patent = $720,000

At the time of purchase, the patent life is 15 years

And, the useful life of the patent is 10 years

So, the amortization expense recorded value is

= $720,000 ÷ 10 years × 5 years

= $360,000

The five years is counted from the year 2006 to the year 2011

8 0
3 years ago
A hedge fund with $1 billion of assets charges a management fee of 2% and an incentive fee of 20% of returns over a money market
iren [92.7K]

Missing information:

a. −5%

b. 0

c. 5%

d. 10%

Answer:

a. only management fees = $20,000,000

b. only management fees = $20,000,000

c. only management fees = $20,000,000

d. $30,000,000 (management fees + $10 million incentive fee)

Explanation:

management fee 2%

incentive fee 20% of returns if total returns are over 5%

common fees for every situation (managers always win even if investors lose):

$1,000,000,000 x 2% = $20,000,000

a. −5% , no incentive fee

b. 0 , no incentive fee

c. 5%  , no incentive fee

d. 10%, incentive fee = (10% - 5%) x 20% x $1,000,000,000 = $10,000,000

6 0
3 years ago
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