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Fantom [35]
1 year ago
11

When a trait is x-linked, a single recessive allele is sufficient for a male to be affected. Why?.

Biology
1 answer:
Feliz [49]1 year ago
7 0

A man may be stimulated via way of means of an X-connected feature with simply one recessive gene (due to the fact the male is hemizygous – he best has one allele of an X-connected trait).

Males have a tendency to develop X-connected recessive ailments greater frequently. One X chromosome is all that men have. On that X chromosome, the situation is due to a unmarried recessive gene. The 2d XY gene pair in a male is placed on the Y chromosome.

To purpose the disorder in women (who've X chromosomes), a version might want to exist in each copies of the gene. Males have  mutated copies of this gene due to the fact it's far implausible that women will are considerably greater usually than women laid low with X-connected recessive diseases.

To learn more about allele, click here:

brainly.com/question/28822332

#SPJ4

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