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Fudgin [204]
1 year ago
9

If the price of bananas increases from $0.75 a pound to $1.00 per pound, in the market for bananas this will cause:______.

Business
1 answer:
LiRa [457]1 year ago
7 0

Banana prices will move upward (to the left) along the demand curve if they rise from $0.75 per pound to $1.00 per pound in the market.

The demand curve is a graphical depiction of the connection between the cost of a commodity or service and the amount demanded over a specific time period. A common representation will have the price on the left-hand vertical axis and the amount needed on the right-hand horizontal axis.

The law of demand states that, when all other factors are equal, the quantity demanded for a given good will decrease as its price rises as shown by the demand curve moving from left to right.

Keep in mind that this formulation suggests that quantity is the dependent variable and price the independent variable. The independent variable often appears on the horizontal axis, or x-axis, although economics is an demand curve.

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International Data Systems' information on revenue and costs is relevant only up to a sales volume of 115,000 units. After 115,0
e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

$855,000

Explanation:

The computation of the operating income is shown below:

Operating income at 115,000 units is

= (Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit) × sales volume - fixed cost

= ($16 - $8) × 115,000 - 65,000

= $855,000

Hence, the operating income at 115,000 units is $855,000

All other things are irrelevant. Hence, ignored it

3 0
3 years ago
For a risk averse person, a. the pleasure of winning $1,000 on a bet exceeds the pain of losing $1,000 on a bet. b. the pain of
kompoz [17]

Answer:

B. the pain of losing $1,000 on a bet exceeds the pleasure of winning $1,000 on a bet.

Explanation:

A risk averse person is an individual or person rather who prefers lower returns with known risk than higher returns with unknown or higher risks. In this case, the individual prioritizes preservation of capital at hand over the potential of a more than average return. In this scenario, for a risk averse individual, the pain of losing $1,000 on a bet exceeds the pleasure of winning $1,000 on a bet based on the high uncertainty attached to winning the $1000 bet.

8 0
3 years ago
O'brien inc. has the following data: rrf = 5.00%; rpm = 6.00%; and b =+0.70. what is the firm's cost of equity from retained ear
algol13

The company's cost of equity is0.92 % of retained earnings according to the capm.

The cost of equity for a corporation is the amount that the market is willing to pay to own an asset and take on ownership risk. The two common methods for determining the cost of equity are the capital asset pricing model and dividend capitalization model. On the right side of the balance sheet, you can see a list of the company's debt and equity accounts. The cost of capital refers to the price a business must pay to finance its operations through debt, equity, or a mix of the two.

b = 0.70, rs = rRF + b(RPM), and rRF + b(RPM) =5.00% RPM6.00% were lent to us.

Learn more about cost of equity here

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7 0
1 year ago
Your seller wants to net $100,000 after the 5% commission is paid. Assuming no closing costs, at what price does the home need t
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

The home needs to sell for $105,263.16 for the seller to receive net of $100,000.00

Explanation:

The amount that the home needs to sell can derived from the net to seller's formula given as: Net to seller = Sale Price * (100% - commission rate)

Net to seller=$100000

Sale price is unknown

commission rate is 5%

$100000=sale price*(100%-5%)

$100000=sale price *95%

sale price =$100000/95%

sale price =$105263.16

For the seller to receive $100000 after 5% commission the property must e sold for $105,263.16

3 0
3 years ago
The common stock of the Avalon Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $40 per share for months, and you believe i
Monica [59]

Answer:

C. Sell a straddle

Explanation:

Considering the following calculation: Sell a straddle = sell a put + sell a call

and,

Premium income for selling a straddle = (P + C )100 = ($3 + $4)(100) = $700.

a short straddle involves simultaneously selling a put option and call option with the same underlying asset, same exercise price and expiration date

By Selling a 3 month put option with exercise price of $40 one will get $3 (inflow of $3)

Simulatenously By Selling a 3 month call option with exercise of $40 one wiil get $4(inflow of $4)

Thus the total premium income of selling a straddle is $7

7 0
3 years ago
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