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Fantom [35]
1 year ago
8

Rosalinda got a payday loan for $2000, due in 2 weeks, and she paid a $150

Business
1 answer:
maxonik [38]1 year ago
5 0

Rosalinda's annual percentage rate (APR) on the loan is <u>195%</u>.

<h3>What is the annual percentage rate?</h3>

The annual percentage rate represents the finance fee and interest paid for borrowing.

The annual percentage rate (APR) for a period of 1 year an be computed by the following simple interest formula:

(Interest + Fee ÷ Principal) ÷ Period

We can multiply the result above by 100 to express it as a percentage.

Assuming that the periodic interest rate is known, we multiply the number of periods in the year to compute the annual percentage rate.

Principal = $2,000

Fee on the loan = $150

Period of loan = 2 weeks

52 weeks = 1 year

Annual percentage rate = 195% ($150/$2,000 x 100 x 52/2)

<u>Check</u>:

APR in dollars = $150 ($2,000 x 195% x 2/52)

Thus, for borrowing $2,000 in two weeks and paying $150 as fee, Rosalinda's loan attracts 195% APR.

Learn more about the annual percentage rate at brainly.com/question/24715857

#SPJ1

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5 0
3 years ago
Sandhill Company deducts insurance expense of $234000 for tax purposes in 2021, but the expense is not yet recognized for accoun
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Answer:

$242,800

Explanation:

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2021 Insurance Expense $234,000          0                       $234,000

This insurance expense will result in taxable temporary difference=$234,000*20%=$46,800

The journal entry will be;

Income Tax Expense        Dr.$46,800

Deferred Tax liability        Cr.$46,800

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8 0
3 years ago
Newhard Company assigns overhead cost to jobs on the basis of 115% of direct labor cost. The job cost sheet for Job 313 includes
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Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 1.15*10,700= $12,305

<u>Now, we can determine the total manufacturing cost:</u>

Total manufacturing cost= 15,745 + 10,700 + 12,305

Total manufacturing cost= $38,750

<u>Finally, the unitary cost:</u>

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4 0
3 years ago
What is the purpose of checks and balances in the constitution?
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7 0
4 years ago
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adell [148]

Answer:

It has become more price inelastic

Explanation:

Elasticity of demand for any good can be defined as degree of responsiveness of any good with respect to change in demand factors like price or income. Hence it signifies consumer sentiments as how will the goods demand change when there is change in price.

Highly elastic goods mean that with slight change in price there is large change in demand of good.

Highly inelastic goods mean any change in demand factor like income, price will not affect the demand of the goods.

Now going for landlines telephone. With the widespread use of mobiles phones, usage of landline phones has decreased significantly. Hence any change in price for landlines is not going to affect it demand as very few people are using it.

Using the above mentioned rational we can say that It has become more price inelastic is the most suitable answer.

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