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katen-ka-za [31]
1 year ago
13

the tendency of naive investors to buy high (after prices have risen for several periods) and sell low (after prices have droppe

d for several periods) can be explained by the behavioral tendency known as
Business
1 answer:
Dominik [7]1 year ago
4 0

The tendency of naive investors to buy high (after prices have risen for several periods) and sell low (after prices have dropped for several periods) can be explained by the behavioral tendency known as anchoring.

<h3>What does anchoring in purchasing behavior mean?</h3>

A behavioral finance heuristic known as "anchoring" refers to the unconscious use of unimportant information, such as the price at which a security was purchased, as a fixed reference point (or "anchor") for making decisions about that security in the future.

The cognitive bias known as "anchoring" occurs when the mere existence of an initial number has an outsized impact on later decision-making. The TV's exorbitant cost acts as an anchor that encourages buyers to spend more money than they intend to. By announcing a lower price after stating a price, the anchoring effect in making purchase decision is activated. Customers will view the higher price as being more comparable to the original, lower price than the alternative prices being provided.

To learn more about purchase decision, visit:

brainly.com/question/26517026

#SPJ1

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What change could be considered an effective sign of economic recovery from the Great Recession?
pogonyaev

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The answer is C. architecture and construction industry demonstrating a sustainable level of growth

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3 years ago
An aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that $4,500 are estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doubtful A
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

a. debit to bad Debt expense for $3,300

Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

Bad debt expenses Dr, $3,300

       To Allowance for doubtful accounts $3,300

(Being bad debts expenses is recorded)

Therefore to record the bad debt for the period we simply debited the bad debt expenses as it increase the expenses and on the other hand we credited the allowance for doubtful accounts as decrease the assets.

So, the right answer is a. debit to bad Debt expense for $3,300 option.

Working Note:-

Bad debt expenses = Estimated uncollectible - Credit balance

= $4,500 - $1,200

= $3,300

4 0
3 years ago
Selected data pertaining to Castile Co. for the current calendar year is as follows: Net cash sales: $ 3,000 Cost of goods sold:
kumpel [21]

Answer:

2.0 times

Explanation:

The inventory turnover ratio indicates how efficient a company is in converting its inventory into sales. It shows the number of times a business sells and restocks its inventory in a period.

The formula for calculating inventory turnover is as follows.

Inventory turn over = Costs of goods sold/ Average inventory

For Castile Co.

COGS is $18,000

Average inventory = Beginning inventory + ending inventory /2Beginning inventory = $6,000

if COGS = Beginning inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory

Then $18,000 = $6000 +$24,000 - ending inventory

=$18,000 = $30,000 -ending inventory

Ending inventory = $30,000-$12,000

Ending Inventory =$12,000

Average inventory = $6000+$12,000/2

Average inventory = $9,000

Inventory turnover = $18000/$9000

=2.0

6 0
3 years ago
If actions of the chinese government caused a shortage of domestic currency, then the exchange rate would be
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this will reduce the supply of china's domestic currency which would <u>contract the supply curve of the domestic currency (of china)</u> thus would <u>create demand</u> and thus <u>increasing the exchange rate in comparison to foreign currencies</u> thus leading to <u>appreciation of china's domestic currency in relation to foreign currencies.</u>

4 0
3 years ago
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