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Tom [10]
1 year ago
12

kelso electric is an all-equity firm with 55,250 shares of stock outstanding. the company is considering the issue of $375,000 i

n debt at an interest rate of 9 percent and using the proceeds to repurchase stock. under the new capital structure, there would be 34,500 shares of stock outstanding. ignore taxes. what is the break-even ebit between the two plans?
Business
1 answer:
otez555 [7]1 year ago
5 0

Break even EBIT between two plans  = $89864.46

What is EBIT?
EBIT (earnings before interest and taxes) is a measure of a company's profitability. EBIT is calculated as revenue less expenses minus tax and interest. Able to <u>operate earnings, operating profit, and financial gains </u>before interest and taxes are other terms for EBIT. EBIT is synonymous with operating income because it measures the profit generated by a company's operations. EBIT focuses exclusively on a company's ability to generate income from operations by ignoring variables such as tax burden and capital structure by ignoring taxes and interest expense. EBIT is a particularly useful metric for determining a company's capacity to generate enough earnings to be <u>lucrative, pay down debt, and fund current operations.</u>

<u />

All Equity firm
Earning per share (EPS) = EBIT ( 1- tax ) / number of shares outstanding
EPS = EBIT(1-0)/ 55250
EPS= EBIT/55250
Plan 2: Debt - Equity firm
EPS = (EBIT- Interest) (1-tax) / number of shares outstanding
EPS= (EBIT- 375000*9%)(1-0)/34500
EPS= (EBIT-33750)/34500

At break even level of EBIT
EBIT/55250 = (EBIT-33750)/34500
34500EBIT= 55250*EBIT-1864687500
1864687500= EBIT(55250-34500)
EBIT= 1864687500/20750= $89864.46
Break even EBIT between two plans  = $89864.46

To learn more about EBIT
brainly.com/question/14565042
#SPJ4

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Explanation:

Social marketing is an approach used to develop activities aimed at changing or maintaining people’s behaviour for the benefit of individuals and society as a whole.

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Suppose a war breaks out that is widely expected to last only one year. Show how the effect of this shock on aggregate output dep
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer and Explanation:

Due to war outbreak, government increases their spending temporarily. Hence, this leads to a shift of the output demand curve towards the right. Also, since the government spending would be more, this would be more than the reduction in consumption due to a decrease consumer wealth. Simultaneously, due to a decrease in consumer wealth, this would shift the output supply curve towards the right. Since the effect of consumer wealth is subjected to be small, this puts the demand curve more further as compared to the output supply curve. Thus, the interest rate would increase.

4 0
4 years ago
The following two errors were made in the physical inventory counts: 1. 2012 ending inventory was overstated by $33,000. 2. 2013
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

2013: $490,000   2012: $561,000

Question:

Errors in inventory count the following information was taken from the record of Spencer Enterprises

                                                                    <u> 2013         </u>           <u>2012         </u>

Beginning Inventory                                    $63,000             $83,000

Cost of goods purchased                          <u> $548,000</u>           <u>$508,000</u>

Cost of goods available for sale                $611,000             $591,000

Ending inventory                                        <u> $93,000 </u>            <u>$63,000</u>

Cost of goods sold                                     <u> $518,000</u>           <u>$528,000</u>

The following two errors were made in the physical inventory counts:

1. 2012 ending inventory was overstated by $33,000

2. 2013 ending inventory was understated by $28,000.

Compute the correct cost of goods sold for both 2012 and 2013.

Explanation:

Computation of cost of goods sold for the year 2016 and 2015

Particulars                                                    <u>2013    </u>       <u>2012          </u>

Beginning inventory                                    $63,000   $83,000

Cost of goods purchased                            <u>$548,000</u>   <u>$508,000</u>

Cost of goods available for sale                    $611,000   $591,000

Ending inventory <em>(corrected)</em>                          <u> $121,000</u>   <u>$30,000</u>

Cost of goods sold <em>(corrected) </em>                       <u>$490,000</u>   <u>$561,000</u>.

<u>note:</u>

<em>In 2013 new ending inventory = $93,000 + $28,000 = $121,000</em>

<em>In 2012 new ending inventory = $63,000 - $33,000 = $30,000</em>

<em>Beginning inventory + Cost of goods purchased = Cost of goods available for sale</em>

<em>Cost of goods available for sale - Ending inventory = Cost of goods sold</em>

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Warp Manufacturing Corporation uses a standard cost system to collect costs related to the production of its ski lift chairs. Wa
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Answer:

A. $37,400 unfavorable

Explanation:

With regards to the above, variable overhead spending variance is computed as

= (Actual hours × Actual rate) - (Actual hours × standard rate)

= $649,400 - ( 34,000 × $18)

= $649,400 - $612,000

= $37,400 unfavorable

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3 years ago
2. A couple would like to take a cruise to Alaska, 15 months from now. They have $1500 in a savings account. The savings account
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

a.- $ 3,529.82  

b.-  $ 3,512.11

c.-  $   132,77

Explanation:

In each case, we must calculate the value of their current savings and the additional investment.

The saving are the same for each scenario so let's calculate that first:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

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time 15 years

rate 0.01000

1500 \: (1+ 0.01)^{15} = Amount

Amount 1,741.45

Then we add the funds generated from the investment:

a.- 110 annuity due for 15 month:

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{-time} -1}{rate}(1+r) = FV\\

C  $ 110

time 15 months

rate 0.01

110 \times \frac{(1+0.01)^{15} -1 }{0.01} = FV\\

FV $1,788.3651

We add the savings and get a total of:  $ 3,529.82  

b.- 110 ordinary annuity

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C  $ 110

time 15 months

rate 0.01

110 \times \frac{(1+0.01)^{15} -1}{0.01} = FV\\

FV $1,770.6585

Plus, original savings of 1,741.45 =  3,512.11  

c.-

If they need 3,900 then the fund must cover the difference between these and the savings future value:

3,900 - 1,741.45 = 2,158.55

Now we calculate the PMT, considering the payment are at the beginning:

FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1 }{rate}(1+r) = C\\

FV  $ 2,158.55

time  15

rate           0.01

2158.55 \div \frac{(1+0.01)^{15} -1}{0.01} (1+0.01) = C\\

C  $ 132.770

3 0
4 years ago
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